Monday, December 22, 2008

139 - drugs causing hemolysis in G6PD deficiency


Definite hemolysis

Possible hemolysis

Doubtful hemolysis

Primaquine, dapsone / chlorproguanil

Chloroquine

Quinine

Sulfamethoxazole , dapsone

Sulfasalazine , sulfadimidine

Sulfadiazine , sulfisoxazole

Cotrimoxazole, nitrofurantoin , nalidixic acid , niridazole

Ciprofloxacin, norfloxacin

Chloramphenicol, para amino salicyclic acid

Acetanilide, phenazopyridine

( pyridium )

Aspirin greater than 3 grams per day

Aspirin lesser than 3 grams per day , acetaminophen , phenacetin

Naphthalene, methylene blue

Vitamin C greater than 1 gm, vitamin K analogues, rasburicase

Doxorubicin , probenecid


The drugs in the first row are the anti malarials causing hemolysis in glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase ( G6PD ) deficient individuals , the drugs in the second row are the sulfonamides causing hemolysis in glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase ( G6PD ) deficient individuals , the drugs in the third row are the antibiotics or antibacterials causing hemolysis in glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase ( G6PD ) deficient individuals , the drugs in the fourth row are the analgesics or anti pyretics causing hemolysis in glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase ( G6PD ) deficient individuals and the fifth row includes miscellaneous drugs and compounds causing hemolysis in glucose 6 phosphate dehydrogenase ( G6PD ) deficient individuals

Sunday, December 7, 2008

138 - continuous murmur causes

2q: continuous murmur is found in ?

 

  1. AS combined with AR
  2. Systemic AV fistula
  3. PDA with reversal of shunt
  4. Aortopulmonary window
  5. Rupture of sinus of valsalva

 

Answer:  b , d , e .

 

Here are the list of causes of all the conditions which causes continuous murmurs :

 

  1. PDA ( patent ductus arteriosus )
  2. congenital or acquired systemic arteriovenous ( AV ) fistula , coronary AV fistula
  3. anomalous origin of LCA from pulmonary artery
  4. ruptured sinus of valsalva aneurysm
  5. coarctation of aorta
  6. aortopulmonary window

 

Saturday, November 15, 2008

137 - AIIMS november 2008 medicine mcqs

111. A 9 YR OLD GIRL HAS DIFFICULTY IN COMBING HAIRS AND CLIMBING UPSTAIRS SINCE 6 MONTHS.SHE HAS GOWERS SIGN POSITIVE AND MACULOPAPULAR RASH OVR METACARPO PHALANGEAL JOINTS.WHAT SHUOLD BE THE NEXT APPROPRIATE INVESTIGATIO TO BE DONE?
A. ESR
B. RA FACTOR
C. CREATINE KINASE
D. ELECTROMYOGRAPHY

112.ANTIBODY FOUND IN MYOSITIS IS?
A. ANTI JO1
B ANTI SCL 70
C. ANTI DS DNA

113.A GIRL ON EXPOSURE TO COLD HAS PALLOR OF EXTERMITIES FOLLOWED BY PAIN AND CYANOSIS. IN LATER AGES OF LIFE SHE IS PRONE TO DEVELOP?
A. SLE
B. SCLERODERMA
C. RA
D. SYSTEMIC SCLEROSIS

114. WHICH RADIOLOGICAL FEATURE WOULD HELP DIFFERENTIATE RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS WITH SLE?
A. EROSION
B. JUXTA ARTICULAR OSTEOPOROSIS
C. SUBLUXATION OF MCP JOINT
D. SWELLING OF PIP JOINT

115.ALL ARE SEEN IN REITERS SYNDROME EXCEPT?
A. SUBCUTANEOUS NODULES
B. ORAL ULCERS
C. KERATODERMA BELANORRHAGICUM
D. CIRCINATE BALANITIS

116.WHICH OF THE ORGANISM CAUSES REACTIVE ARTHRITIS?
A. UREAPLASMA UREALYTICUM
B. GROUP A BETA HEMOLYTIC STREPTOCOCCI
C. BORRELIA BURGDORFERI

117.ALL ARE TRUE ABOUT METACHROMATIC LEUCODYSTROPHY EXCEPT?
A. FOLLOWS AN INDOLENT COURSE AND SLOW TO PROGRESS
B. TISSUE BIOPSY IS DIAGNOSTIC
C. PRESENTS AS VISUAL LOSS AND SPEECH ABNORMALITY
D. INVOLVES DEEP CORTICAL NEURONS


118. MOST COMMON CAUSE OF MONONEURITIS MULTIPLEX IN
INDIA IS?
A. HANSENS DISEASE
B. RA
C. TB
D. PAN

119.WISKOTT ALDRICH SYNDROME IS CHARACTERISED BY ALL EXCEPT?
A. THROMBOCYTOPENIA
B. AUTOSOMAL RECESSIVE
C. FAILURE OF AGGREGATION OF PLATELETS IN RESPONSE TO AGONISTS
D. ECZEMA

120.SPONTANEOUS CSF LEAK OCCOURS IN ALL EXCEPT?
A. INCREASED ICT
B. PARTIAL OR COMPLETE EMPTY SELLA SYNDROME
C. PSEUDOTUMOUR CEREBRI
D. LOW RISK ENCEPHALOCOELE

121. TRUE ABOUT FLUORESCENT ANTIBODY DETECTION TEST IN DIAGNOSIS OF PLASMODIUM FALCIFARUM ARE A/E?
A. IT’S A IMMUNOCHROMATIC TEST
B. DETECTION OF HISTIDINE RICH PROTEIN 1
C. DETECTION OF LACTATE DEHYDROGENASE ANTIGEN
D. DETECTION OF ALDOLASE ANTIGEN

122.MICROANGIOPATHIC HEMOLYTIC ANAEMIA IS SEEN IN A/E?
A. ANTIPHOSPHPLIPID ANTIBODY SYN
B.TTP
C. MICROSCOPIC POLYANGITIS
D. METALLIC CARDIAC VALVES

123. WHICH OF THESE IS NOT A MARKER OF ACTIVE REPLICATIVE PHASE OF CHRONIC HEPATITIS B?
A. HBV DNA
B. HBV DNA POLYMERASE
C. ANTI Hbc
D. AST &ALT

124.VASODIALATION IN SPIDER NAEVI IS DUE TO?
A. HEPATOTOXIN
B. ESTROGEN
C. TESTOSTERONE
D. DHEA

125. IN A EMPHYSEMATOUS PATIENT WITH [bleep] LEISON WHICH IS THE BEST INVESTIGATION TO MEASURE LUNG VOLUMES?
A. BODY PLETHYSMOGRAPHY
B. HELIUM DILUTION
C. TRANS DIAPHRAGMATIC PRESSURE
D. DLCO





126.A 29 YR OLD UNMARRIED FEMALE PRESENTS WITH DYSPNEA, HER CHEST X RAY IS NORMAL, FVC-92% FEVI/FVC-89% DLCO-59%. ON EXERCISE HER OXYGEN SATURATION DROPS FROM 92% TO 86%.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?
A. ALVEOLAR HYPOVENTILLATION
B. PRIMARY PULMONARY HYPERTENSION
C. INTERSTITIAL LUNG DISEASE
D. ANXIETY

127.A MAN ON 10 DAYS COURSE OF CEPHALOSPORINS ON 8TH DAY OF TREATMENT DEVELOPS HIGN GRADE FEVER AND RASHES ALL OVER THE BODY.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?
A. PARTIALLY TREATED MENINGITIS
B. TYPE III HYPERSENSITIVITY REACTION
C.
KAWASAKI’S DS

128. WHICH IS FALSE ABOUT ACRODERMATITIS ENTEROPATHICA?
A. TRIAD OF DIARRHOEA DMENTIA DERMATITIS
B. LOW SERUM ZINC LEVELS
C. SYMPTOMS IMPROVE WITH ZINC SUPPLEMENTATION

129.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A MINOR CRITERIA FOR MULTIPLE MYELOMA?
A. MULTIPLE LYTIC BONE LEISONS
B. PLASMACYTOSIS OF 20% IN BONE MARROW
C. PLASMACYTOMA ON TISSUE BIOPSY
D. IgG- 3g/Dl IgA-1.5g/Dl

130.WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FEATURES OF UREMIA WILL NOT IMPROVE WITH HEMODIALYSIS?
A. PERIPHERAL NEUROPATHY
B. PERCARDITIS
C. SEIZURES
D. METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

131.NOT A MAJOR
FRAMINGHAM CRITERIA FOR DIAGNOSIS OF CHF?
A. HEPATOMEGALY
B. CARDIOMEGALY
C. S3 GALLOP
D. PAROXYSMAL NOCTURNAL DYSPNEA

132.A 54 YR OLD SMOKER MAN COMES WITH FEVER HEMOPTYSIS WEIGHT LOSS AND OLIGOARTHRITIS. SERIAAL SKIAGRAM SHOWS FLEETING OPACITIES.WHAT IS THE DIAGNOSIS?
A. ALLERGIC BRONCHOPULMONARY ASPERGILLOSIS
B. CA LUNG
C. TB
D. WEGENERS GRANULOMATOSIS

133.MISFOLDED PROTEINS ARE SEEN IN A/E?
A. PRION DS
B. MULTIPLE SCLEROSIS
C. AMYLOIDOSIS
D. CREUTZFELDT JACOB DS

134.ZINC DEFICIENCY CAUSES A/E?
A. PULMONARY FIBROSIS

to view all the 200 mcqs of AIIMS november 2008 click here

Wednesday, October 8, 2008

136 - infectious diseases mcqs - 1

Match the clinical description with the most likely etiologic agent.

a. Candida albicans
b. Aspergillus flavus
c. Coccidioides immitis
d. Herpes simplex type 1
e. Herpes simplex type 2
f. Hantavirus
g. Tropheryma whippelii
h. Coxsackievirus B
i. Histoplasma capsulatum
j. Human parvovirus
k. Cryptococcus neoformans

55. An HIV-positive patient develops fever and dysphagia; endoscopic
biopsy shows yeast and hyphae.

56. A 50-year-old develops sudden onset of bizarre behavior. CSF shows
80 lymphocytes; magnetic resonance imaging shows temporal lobe abnormalities.

57. A patient with a previous history of tuberculosis now complains of
hemoptysis. There is an upper lobe mass with a cavity and a crescentshaped
air-fluid level.

58. A Filipino patient develops a pulmonary nodule after travel through
the American Southwest.

59. A 35-year-old male who had a fever, cough, and sore throat develops
chest pain after several days, with diffuse ST segment elevations on ECG.

60. Overwhelming pneumonia with adult respiratory distress syndrome
occurs on an Indian reservation in the Southwest following exposure to
deer mice.

The answers are 55-a, 56-d, 57-b, 58-c, 59-h, 60-f.

(Kasper,

pp 1038, 1055–1056, 1144–1146, 1172, 1180–1181, 1186–1187, 1188, 1413,
2480–2483.)

There are several causes for dysphagia in the HIV-positive

patient, including C. albicans, herpes simplex, and cytomegalovirus. The
biopsy result in this patient confirms Candida infection with the typical picture
of both yeast and hyphae seen on smear.

Herpes simplex encephalitis can occur in patients of any age—usually
in immunocompetent patients. Most adults with HSV encephalitis have
previous infection with mucocutaneous HSV-1. The bizarre behavior
includes personality aberrations, hypersexuality, or sensory hallucinations.
CSF shows lymphocytes with a close-to-normal sugar and protein. Focal
abnormalities are seen in the temporal lobe by CT scan, MRI, or EEG.

The patient who has had a previous history of tuberculosis and now
complains of hemoptysis would be reevaluated for active tuberculosis.
However, the chest x-ray described is characteristic of a fungus ball—
almost always the result of an aspergilloma.

The Filipino patient who has developed a pulmonary nodule after
travel through the Southwest would be suspected of having developed coccidioidomycosis.Individuals from the Philippines have a higher incidence
of the disease and are more likely to have complications of dissemination.

The 35-year-old with cough, sore throat, and fever went on to develop

symptoms of myopericarditis with typical ECG findings. Coxsackievirus B
infection is the most likely cause of URI symptoms that evolve into a picture
of myocarditis. Myocarditis may be asymptomatic or can present with
chest pain, both pleuritic and ischemic-like. Enteroviruses rarely if ever
attack the pericardium alone without involving the subepicardial
myocardium.

Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome begins with a prodromal illness of
cough, fever, and myalgias that is difficult to distinguish from other viral
illnesses such as influenza. However, the illness progresses to increased
dyspnea, hypoxia, and hypotension. The picture resembles adult respiratory
distress syndrome (ARDS), and most patients require mechanical ventilation.
The infection should be suspected when a previously healthy adult
develops unexplained pulmonary edema or ARDS without known causes.
Thrombocytopenia is also a useful clue. Transmission of hantavirus usually
occurs through aerosolization of urine from infected rodents or through the
bite of an infected rodent

Sunday, October 5, 2008

135 - lung diseases diagnosis mcqs

For each set of patients below, select the most likely diagnosis.

a. Laryngeal carcinoma
b. Small cell carcinoma of the lung
c. Large cell carcinoma of the lung
d. Beryliosis
e. Sarcoidosis
f. Laryngeal papilloma
g. Bronchial adenoma
h. Cystic fibrosis
i. Hodgkin’s disease
j. Chronic obstructive lung disease
k. Acute bronchitis

135. A 20-year-old male has a cough and history of bronchitis with thick
greenish sputum. There is no history of cigarette smoking. The patient has
also been treated for abdominal cramping and malabsorption.

136. A 60-year-old black male who has a long history of cigarette smoking
and alcohol abuse complains of pain on swallowing. Pain is also
referred to the ear. The patient speaks with a hoarse voice.

137. A 55-year-old women, who began smoking cigarettes as a teenager,
has been losing weight for 3 months and complains of hemoptysis and
cough. She has also had 1 week of severe leg and back pain. Routine laboratory
data shows hyponatremia and anemia.

138. A 40-year-old electronics worker has noted increasing shortness of
breath and cough over many years, which he attributes to working conditions.
On physical exam there is dermatitis of the face and bilateral inspiratory
crackles. Chest x-ray shows hilar adenopathy and bilateral
interstitial markings.

139. A 42-year-old male is evaluated for fever, night sweats, and pruritus.
There is a 2-cm fixed supraclavicular node on physical exam as well as
bilateral axillary nodes. Chest x-ray shows mediastinal lymphadenopathy.

The answers are 135-h, 136-a, 137-b, 138-d, 139-i.

(Kasper, pp 506–516, 654, 1489, 1524, 1543–1546.) The 20-year-old male
has evidence of chronic airway infection not associated with cigarette
smoking. Cystic fibrosis is a multisystem disease with signs and symptoms
usually beginning in childhood. However, 7% of patients are diagnosed as
adults. This is an autosomal recessive disease with a gene mutation on
chromosome 7. In addition to respiratory tract infection, there are intesti-
nal complications and exocrine pancreatic insufficiency. This results in
malabsorbtion with bulky stools.


The 60-year-old black male presents with symptoms of laryngeal carcinoma.
The disease is closely correlated with smoking. Alcohol is also an
important risk factor, and the disease is more common in blacks than
whites. Symptoms depend on the anatomic region of the cancer. Pain on
swallowing is the most common symptom, sometimes with dysphagia or a
mass sensation. For glottic and subglottic tumors, hoarseness is often
present. Pain may also be referred to the ear by the recurrent laryngeal
nerve.


The incidence of small cell carcinoma of the lung is increasing in
women. The 55-year-old woman suggests the diagnosis of small cell carcinoma
because symptoms have developed quickly and there is evidence for
early metastatic disease. In addition, the syndrome of hyponatremia caused
by inappropriate ADH secretion is more likely to occur with small cell carcinoma.


The 40-year-old electronics worker is an example of environmental
lung disease. Berylliosis occurs in the high-tech electronics field as well as
in the manufacture of alloys, nuclear material, and ceramics. Usually, 2 to
15 years of exposure are required before becoming symptomatic. Dermatitis
may be present, along with nonspecific respiratory symptoms. This is a
granulomatous disease presenting in a manner similar to sarcoidosis. Tissue
levels of beryllium can be measured for definitive diagnosis.


The 42-year-old with fever, night sweats, and pruritus gives symptoms
very characteristic of Hodgkin’s disease. Most patients present with palpable
lymphadenopathy, and more than half will have mediastinal lymphadenopathy
on presentation. About half will have symptoms of fever,
night sweats, or weight loss. There may be unexplained itching as well as
cutaneous lesions such as erythema nodosum, or icthyosis.

Monday, September 22, 2008

134 - immunoglobulins mcqs

1. Ig that crosses the placenta ?

Answer: Ig G .

2. Ig present in milk ?

Answer: Ig G and Ig A

3. Ig in seromucinous glands ?

Answer: Ig G and Ig A

4. Ig in primary immune response ?

Answer: Ig M

5. Ig in secondary immune response ?

Answer: Ig G

6. Ig with maximum molecular weight ?

Answer: Ig M

7. Ig with maximum sedimentation rate ?

Answer: Ig M

8. Ig with minimum sedimentation coefficient ?

Answer: Ig G

9. Blood group antibodies belong to which type of immunoglobulins ?

answer: Ig M

10. Rheumatoid factor belongs to which type of immunoglobulins ?

answer: Ig M ( antibody against Fc fragment of Ig G )

11. Immunoglobulin that is heat labile ?

answer: Ig E .

12. Immunoglobulin mediating the prausnitz kustner reaction ?

Answer: Ig E

13. Ig appearing first in life ?

Answer: Ig M

14. homocytotropism is seen in which Ig ?

answer: Ig E .

15. Ig with maximum serum concentration ?

Answer: Ig G

16. Ig with minimum serum concentration ?

Answer: Ig E

17. Ig with longest half life ?

Answer: Ig G

18. Ig with shortest half life ?

Answer: Ig E

19. Ig with maximum synthesis per day ?

Answer: Ig A

20. Ig with minimum synthesis per day ?

Answer: Ig E

21. Ig responsible for hypersensitivity pneumonitis ?

Answer: Ig G

22. binary exposure to an antigen results in sudden increase in ?

answer: Ig G

23. Ig to fix complements via classical pathway ?

Answer: Ig G1 and Ig M

24. Ig to fix complements via alternate pathway ?

Answer: Ig A , Ig D , Ig G4

Monday, August 11, 2008

133 - glasgow coma scale



patients scoring 3 or 4 have an 85 % percent chance of dying or remaining vegetative, while scores greater than 11 indicate only a 5-10 % chance of dying or remaining in a vegetative state and 85 % chance of moderate disability or good recovery. intermediate scores correlate with proportional chances of recovery .

132 - chronic hepatitis - types,diagnosis,antibodies,treatment

Type of hepatitis

Therapy

Chronic hepatitis B

IFN-alpha, PEG IFN-alpha, lamivudine,adefovir,entecavir

Chronic hepatitis C

PEG IFN-alpha ,ribavirin

Chronic hepatitis D

IFN-alpha, PEG IFN-alpha

Autoimmune hepatitis

Prednisone, azathioprine

Drug-associated

Withdraw drug

Cryptogenic

Prednisone?azathioprine?



Type of hepatitis

Autoantibodies

Chronic hepatitis B

uncommon

Chronic hepatitis C

Anti LKM 1

Chronic hepatitis D

Anti LKM3

Autoimmune hepatitis

ANA,anti-LKM 1, anti-SLA

Drug-associated

uncommon

Cryptogenic

none


Type of auto immune hepatitis

Antibody associated

Auto immune hepatitis type 1

Anti nuclear antibodies ( ANA )

Auto immune hepatitis type 2

Anti LKM 1 antibodies

Auto immune hepatitis type 3

Anti – SLA antibodies

Type of hepatitis

Diagnostic tests

Chronic hepatitis B

HBsAg,IgG anti-HBc,HBeAg,HBV DNA

Chronic hepatitis C

Anti-HCV,HCV RNA

Chronic hepatitis D

Anti-HDV,HDV RNA,HbsAg,IgG anti HBc

Autoimmune hepatitis

ANA(homogenous),anti-LKM1

(+-),hyperglobulinemia

Drug-associated

-------------------

Cryptogenic

All negative

131 - Drugs of choice in seizure conditions

Generalized tonic clonic seizures
V A L P R O A T E
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
V A L P R O A T E
Absence seizures
V A L P R O A T E
Atypical absence seizures
V A L P R O A T E
Myoclonus
V A L P R O A T E
Atonic seizures
V A L P R O A T E
Simple partial seizures
Carbamazepine
Complex partial seizures
Carbamazepine
Benign partial seizures
Carbamazepine
Secondary generalized seizures
Carbamazepine
Trigeminal neuralgia
Carbamazepine
Status epilepticus
Lorazepam
Neonatal seizures
Phenobarbitone
WEST syndrome
ACTH / Prednisolone
Infantile spasms in tuberous sclerosis
Vigabatrin

130 - auto immune hepatitis types and antibodies

Type of auto immune hepatitis

Antibody associated



Auto immune hepatitis type 1

Anti nuclear antibodies

( ANA )

Auto immune hepatitis type 2

Anti LKM 1 antibodies

Auto immune hepatitis type 3

Anti – SLA antibodies


LKM stands for liver kidney microsomal antibodies

SLA stands for soluble liver antigen

129 - anti-LKM antibodies

Type of LKM antibody

Condition associated



Anti LKM 1 antibodies

Chronic Hepatitis C , auto immune hepatitis type 2

Anti LKM 2 antibodies

Drug induced hepatitis

Anti LKM 3 antibodies

Chronic hepatitis D


LKM stands for liver kidney microsomal antibodies

Monday, August 4, 2008

128 - pseudotumor cerebri

Signs and Symptoms

Pseudotumor cerebri (PTC) is encountered most frequently in young, overweight women between the ages of 20 and 45. Headache is the most common presenting complaint, occurring in more than 90 percent of cases. Dizziness, nausea, and vomiting may also be encountered, but typically there are no alterations of consciousness or higher cognitive function. Tinnitus, or a "rushing" sound in the ears, is another frequent complaint. Visual symptoms are present in up to 70 percent of all patients with PTC, and include transient visual obscurations, general blurriness, and intermittent horizontal diplopia. These symptoms tend to worsen in association with Valsalva maneuvers and changes in posture. Reports of ocular pain, particularly with extreme eye movements, have also been noted.

Funduscopic evaluation of patients with PTC demonstrates bilaterally swollen, edematous optic nerves consistent with true papilledema. Ophthalmoscopy may reveal striations within the nerve fiber layer, blurring of the superior and inferior margins of the neural rim, disc hyperemia, and capillary dilatation. More severe presentations involve engorged and tortuous retinal venules, peripapillary hemorrhages and/or cotton wool spots, and circumferential retinal microfolds (Paton’s lines). Chronic papilledema mayresult in atrophy of the nerve head, with associated pallor and gliosis. Most cases of true papilledema will not present with a relative afferent pupillary defect, although visual field deficits may be present. The most common visual field defect associated with PTC is an enlarged blind spot, followed by a nasal deficit, typically affecting the inferior quadrants. Other field losses seen in PTC include arcuate defects, nasal step, generalized constriction, and least commonly, cecocentral scotoma.

Pathophysiology
Pseudotumor cerebri is a syndrome disorder defined clinically by four criteria: (1) elevated intracranial pressure as demonstrated by lumbar puncture; (2) normal cerebral anatomy, as demonstrated by neuroradiographic evaluation; (3) normal cerebrospinal fluid composition; and (4) signs and symptoms of increased intracranial pressure, including papilledema.

While the mechanism of PTC is not fully understood, most experts agree that the disorder results from poor absorption of cerebrospinal fluid by the meninges surrounding the brain and spinal cord. The subsequent increase in extracerebral fluid volume leads to elevated intracranial pressure. However, because the process is slow and insidious, there is ample time for the ventricular system to compensate and this explains why there is no dilation of the cerebral ventricles in PTC. Increased intracranial pressure induces stress on the peripheral aspects of the brain, including the cranial nerves. Stagnation of axoplasmic flow in the optic nerve (CN II) results in papilledema and transient visual obscurations; when the abducens nerve (CN VI) is involved, the result is intermittent nerve palsy and diplopia.

Many conditions and factors have been proposed as causative agents of PTC, including excessive dosages of some exogenously administered medications (e.g., vitamin A, tetracycline, minocycline, naladixic acid, corticosteroids), endocrinologic abnormalities, anemias, blood dyscrasias, and chronic respiratory insufficiency. However the majority of cases remain idiopathic in nature.

Management
All patients presenting with suspected papilledema or other manifestations of intracranial hypertension warrant prompt medical evaluation and neurologic testing. Current protocol dictates that patients presumptively diagnosed with papilledema must undergo neuroimaging via computed tomography or, preferably, magnetic resonance imaging within 24 hours. These tests are meant to rule out space-occupying intracranial mass lesions, and therefore should be ordered with contrast media unless otherwise contraindicated. In cases of PTC, neuroimaging typically displays small to normal-sized cerebral ventricles with otherwise normal brain structure. Patients with unremarkable radiographic studies should be subsequently referred for neurosurgical consultation and lumbar puncture. (Lumbar puncture should not be ordered until neuroimaging is found negative for space-occupying mass due to risk for herniation of brainstem through foramen magnum secondary to mass during lumbar puncture.) Additional medical testing includes serologic and hematologic studies.

Therapy for patients with PTC varies, but in most instances initiate systemic medications as a first line treatment. Typically, the drug of choice for the initial management of PTC is oral acetazolamide (Diamox), although other diuretics including chlorthalidone (Hygroton) and furosemide (Lasix) may also be used effectively. Corticosteroid therapy is considered controversial in the management of PTC. While a short-term course of oral or intravenous dexamethasone may be helpful in initially lowering intracranial pressure, it is not considered to be an effective long-term therapy because of the potential for systemic and ocular complications.

For patients in whom conventional medical therapy fails to alleviate the symptoms and prevent pathologic decline, surgical intervention is the only definitive treatment. Cerebrospinal fluid shunting procedures are commonly employed in recalcitrant cases of PTC, but are successful in only 70 to 80 percent of cases. Optic nerve sheath decompression has also been advocated as a method to alleviate chronic disc edema, although this technique fails to directly address the issue of elevated intracranial pressure. It also demonstrates a particularly high failure rate.

Optometric management of patients diagnosed with PTC includes careful and frequent evaluation, including threshold visual fields, acuity measurement, contrast sensitivity, and indirect ophthalmoscopy. Photodocu-mentation of the nerve heads should also be performed.

Clinical Pearls

· PTC is a diagnosis of exclusion.

· Past literature refers to PTC as benign idiopathic intracranial hypertension, however this condition is far from benign. Patients may suffer intractable headache, severe nausea, intermittent diplopia and permanent vision loss, if they are not properly managed.

· Although no single causative agent has been identified, it is clear that one very common factor in patients with PTC appears to be obesity in women of childbearing age. Interestingly, significant weight loss in conjunction with conventional therapy leads to complete remission of this disorder in many instances.

· Patients with PTC should be enrolled in a formal weight-reduction program as a therapeutic measure.

· While PTC occurs most commonly in females of childbearing age, a number of cases have been encountered in male children.

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