Showing posts with label cardiology mcqs. Show all posts
Showing posts with label cardiology mcqs. Show all posts

Wednesday, March 11, 2009

156 - cardiac tamponade mcqs - part 3


11q: what is the most common thoracotomy approach for echocardiography guided pericardiocentesis ?

a. apical
b. parasternal
c. subxiphoid
d. all are done with equal frequency


12q: what type of thoracotomy approach is most commonly done for recurrent cardiac tamponades ?

a. apical
b. parasternal
c. subxiphoid
d. all are done with equal frequency


13q: pericardial fluid obtained from an effusion often has the physical characteristics of ?

a. transudate
b. exudate
c. blood stained fluid
d. none


14q: what is the most common cause of bloody fluid in the pericardium in united states of America ?

a. neoplasm
b. tuberculosis
c. trauma
d. other infections


15q: what is the most common cause of the bloody fluid in the pericardium in developing countries ( like India ) ?

a. tuberculosis
b. neoplasm
c. trauma
d. other infections


16q: transudative pericardial effusions can occur in which of the following conditions ?

a. neoplasms
b. heart failure
c. inflammatory conditions
d. infections


17q: elevated levels of which enzyme are present in pericardial fluid removed from a tubercular pericardial effusion patient ?

a. lactate dehydrogenase ( LDH )
b. adenosine deaminase
c. alanine transminase
d. aspartate transaminase


155 - cardiac tamponade mcqs - part 2


6q: which of the following raises the suspicion of cardiac tamponade ?

a. unexplained enlargement of the cardiac silhouette
b. reduction of the amplitude of the QRS complexes
c. electrical alterans of the P,QRS or T waves
d. all the above


7q: what is pulsus paradoxus or paradoxical pulse ?

a. greater than normal ( 10 mm Hg ) inspiratory decline in systolic arterial pressure
b. greater than normal ( 10 mm Hg ) inspiratory increase in systolic arterial pressure
c. greater than normal ( 10 mm Hg ) expiratory decline in systolic arterial pressure
d. greater than normal ( 10 mm Hg ) expiratory increase in systolic arterial pressure


8q: paradoxical pulse or pulsus paradoxus is seen in which of the following conditions ?

a. hypovolemic shock
b. acute obstructive airway disease
c. chronic obstructive airway disease
d. pulmonary embolus
e. cardiac tamponade
f. constrictive pericarditis
g. all except b
h. all except f
i. all of the above


9q: diagnostic procedure of choice to diagnose cardiac tamponade ?

a. echocardiography
b. X ray
c. ECG
d. MRI


10q: what is the treatment of choice to treat a patient with pericardial tamponade ?

a. pericardiocentesis
b. defibrillation
c. conservative treatment
d. opening the thorax surgically and draining the fluid


154 - cardiac tamponade mcqs - part 1


1q: what is the characteristic appearance of heart in cardiac tamponade ?

a. figure of 8 appearance
b. wer vase heart
c. coren sabot
d. ter bottle heart


2q: the three most common causes of cardiac tamponade are all except ?

a. neoplastic disease
b. idiopathic pericarditis
c. pericardial effusion
d. cardiac catheterization


3q: what is the characteristic triad associated with cardiac tamponade ?

a. beck’s triad
b. sandblom’s triad
c. whipple’s triad
d. murphy’s triad


4q: all of the following are features of beck’s triad except ?

a. soft or absent heart sounds
b. hypotension
c. jugular venous distension
d. prominent y descent


5q: all of the following are true about cardiac tamponade except ?

a. it can result by even 200 ml of fluid in the pericardial space , if it develops rapidly
b. in slowly developing effusions more than 2000 ml of fluid can exist in the pericardial space
c. the volume of fluid required to produce cardiac tamponade varies directly with the thickness of the ventricular myocardium
d. the volume of fluid required to produce cardiac tamponade varies directly with the thickness of parietal pericardium


Sunday, December 7, 2008

138 - continuous murmur causes

2q: continuous murmur is found in ?

 

  1. AS combined with AR
  2. Systemic AV fistula
  3. PDA with reversal of shunt
  4. Aortopulmonary window
  5. Rupture of sinus of valsalva

 

Answer:  b , d , e .

 

Here are the list of causes of all the conditions which causes continuous murmurs :

 

  1. PDA ( patent ductus arteriosus )
  2. congenital or acquired systemic arteriovenous ( AV ) fistula , coronary AV fistula
  3. anomalous origin of LCA from pulmonary artery
  4. ruptured sinus of valsalva aneurysm
  5. coarctation of aorta
  6. aortopulmonary window

 

Saturday, March 15, 2008

96 - test yourself in medicine - multiple choice questions in medicine with answers and explanations - 701 to 800

701 - glutathione is a tripeptide comprising of ?

answer : glutamic acid , cysteine and glycine .

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702 - pinta is caused by ?

answer : treponema cerateum .

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703 - pneumococcus : capsulated , gram positive , quellung or neufeld reaction , draughtsman concentric rings on culture , non-motile and oxidase and catalase negative .

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704 - liver transplantation was first done by ?

answer : starzl .

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705 - most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue typing ?

answer : HLA-D .

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706 - HLA matching is not necessary in which of the following organ transplantation ?

answer : liver transplantation .

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707 - vitamin C deficiency causes deficiency of which enzyme ?

answer : proline hydroxylase .

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708 - the couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of ?

answer : hepatic veins and portal vein .

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709 - post gonococcal stricture urethra is most commonly situated in the ?

answer : bulbar urethra .

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710 - reimplantation time for lower limb ?

answer : 8 hours .

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711 - after oesophagectomy the best substitute of oesophagus is ?

answer : stomach .

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712 - best and definitive diagnosis for breast lump ?

answer : open biopsy ( excision biopsy ).

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713 - first diagnostic procedure when the patient presents with lump is ?

answer : FNAC .

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714 - most malignant type of carcinoma breast ?

answer : mastitis carcinomatosa .

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715 - flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is ?

answer : TRAM .

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716 - spleniculi are accesory spleens , they are seen in ?

answer : hilum .

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717 - splenosis means ?

answer : rupture of spleen and distribution of its tissue on peritoneum .

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718 - spleen contains about how much percentage of the total blood volume ?

answer : 2 % .

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719 - removal of senescent RBC from the circulation by spleen is called ?

answer : culling .

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720 - triad of hypernephroma ?

answer : pain , hematuria and renal mass .

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721 - gredinogo's triad ( petrositis ) ?

answer : persistent ear discharge , retroorbital pain and 6th nerve palsy .

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722 - triad of behcet's syndrome ?

answer : recurrent oral ulcers , genital ulcers , iridocyclitis ( + skin ulcers make a tetrad ) .

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723 - triad of kwashiorkor ?

answer : oedema , growth retardation and mental changes ( apathy , listlessness , lethargy ) .

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724 - gold standard diagnostic test for varicose veins ?

answer : duplex imaging .

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725 - NNRTI s - DEN - delaviridine , efavirenz , nevirapine .

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726 - Neuritic Plaques - seen in Alzheimer's.

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727 - Coarse azurophilic granules in the leuko - seen in ALDER - REILLY SYNDRome .

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728 - Albumino-Cytologic Dissociation is pathognomic for Guillain-Barre (markedly increased protein in CSF with only modest increase in cell count).

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729 - Rouleaux Formation is pathognomic for multiple myeloma RBC's stacked as poker chips.

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730 - Podagra is pathognomic for gout (MP joint of hallux).

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731 - Wire Loop Glomeruli is pathognomic for lupus nephropathy type IV.

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732 - Chancre is pathognomic for primary Syphilis.

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733 - Gower's Maneuver is pathognomic for Duchenne's MD use of arms to stand.

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734 - S3 Heart Sound is pathognomic for L®R Shunt (VSD PDA) & Mitral Regurg & LV Failure.

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735 - Depigmentation Of Substantia Nigra is pathognomic for Parkinson's.

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736 - Cold Agglutinins is pathognomic for Mycoplasma pneumoniae & infectious mononucleosis.

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737 - Crescents In Bowman's Capsule is pathognomic for rapidly progressive (crescentic glomerulonephritis).

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738 - Painless Jaundice is pathognomic for pancreatic CA (head).

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739 - Erythema Chronicum Migrans is pathognomic for Lyme Disease .

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740 - Basophilic Stippling of RBCs is pathognomic for lead poisoning .

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741 - Thyroidization of Kidney is pathognomic for chronic pyelonephritis .

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742 - Tendinous Xanthomas is pathognomic for Familial Hypercholesterolemia .

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743 - S4 Heart Sound is pathognomic for Pulmonary Stenosis & Pulmonary HTN.

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744 - cleft lip is due to nonfusion of - maxillary process with the medial nasal process .

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745 - unilateral cleft lip is associated with - posterior displacement of alar cartilage .

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746 - most frequently fractured bone of the face ?

answer : nasal bone . then comes the zygomatic bone in the second place .

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747 - fracture mandible with edentulous jaw is best treated by ?

answer : external fixator .

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748 - common organism giving rise to UTI ?

answer : e coli .

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749 - acute urinary retention in a male child may be due to ?

answer : meatal ulcer with scabbing.

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750 - urinary cytology is a useful screening test for the diagnosis of ?

a- renal cell carcinoma

b- wilm's tumor

c- urothelial carcinoma

d- carcinoma prostate

answer is c . urothelial carcinoma .

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751 - low and fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in ?

answer : chronic renal failure .

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752 - on exertion urine stream increases in ?

answer : urethral stricture .

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753 - UTI exists when the bacterial count in 1 ml of midstream specimen of urine is ?

answer : 10 to the power of 5 or more . ( 100000 or more - 1 lakh or more ) .

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754 - site of transplantation in islet cell transplant for diabetes mellitus ?

answer : injected into the portal vein .

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755 - which of the following present as acute abdomen ?

a- acute intermittent porphyria

b- tabes

c- pneumonitis of the lower lobe

d- all

answer is d . all the above .

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756 - most common neoplasm of the appendix ?

answer : argentaffinoma ( carcinoid tumor ).

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757 - the most common site of enlargement of lymphnodes in hodgkin's lymphoma is ?

answer : mediastinal nodes .

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758 - treatment of acute lymphangitis ?

answer : antibiotics and rest .

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759 - total dose of radiation in hodgkins disease ?

answer : 3000 to 5000 rad ( 40 gy = 4000 rad ) .

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760 - most common site of lymphangiosarcoma ?

answer : post mastectomy edema of arm .

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761 - grade 1 lymphedema - edema disappearing after overnight rest ( pitting edema that disappears after lying down or rest )

grade 2 lymphedema - non pitting edema which does not disappear easily .

grade 3 lymphedema - lymphedema associated with irriversible skin changes like fibrosis and papillae .

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762 - most common infection after splenectomy ?

answer : streptococcal infection . ( mostly streptococcus pneumoniae )

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763 - most common complication after splenectomy is ?

answer : chest infection .

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764 - post splenectomy sepsis is common in ?

a- ITP

b- thalassemia

c- hereditary spherocytosis

d- trauma

answer is a , b , c .

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765 - the most important radiological sign of splenic rupture is ?

answer : obliteration of splenic shadow .

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766 - accidental small splenic rupture is treated with ?

answer : catgut suturing with omental patch .

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767 - splenic vein thrombosis is best treated by?

answer : splenectomy .

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768 - the rule of nine in the case of burns was first introduced by ?

answer : palaski and tennison and later modified by alexander wallace .

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769 - IV fluids rule for burns ?

answer : percentage of body surface area burnt X weight of the person in kgs X 4 = VOLUME IN ml . parkland formula .

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770 - fibroblast in healing wound is derived from ?

answer : local mesenchyme .

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771 - the vitamin which has inhibitory effect on wound healing ?

answer : vitamin E .

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772 - parathyroid adenoma most commonly involves which of the following site ?

a- thyroid substance

b- superior parathyroid lobe

c- inferior parathyroid lobe

d- in the mediastinum

answer is c . inferior parathyroid lobe .

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773 - most common cause of hypercalcemic crisis is ?

a- parathyroid adenoma

b- parathyroid hyperplasia

c- carcinoma breast

d- paget's disease

answer is c . carcinoma breast .

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774 - opsoclonus - myoclonus is a phenomenon seen in ?

a- neuroblastoma

b- wilms tumor

c- meningioma

d- cortical tuberculoma

answer is a . neuroblastoma .

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775 - extraperitoneal rupture of urinary bladder - where is urine collected ?

answer : above urogenital diaphragm in the perivesical space .

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776 - nerve which lies in association with the wharton's duct ?

answer : lingual nerve .

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779 - pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the parotid , submandibular and the sublingual salivary glands .

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780 - the most common tumor of the minor salivary glands ?

answer : adenoid cystic carcinoma followed by the mucoepidermoid carcinoma .

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781 - most common duct stones - submandibular gland .

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782 - in prostatic metastasis - the nodes which are most commonly involved ?

answer : obturator nodes .

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783 - which of the following is the most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy ?

answer : dorsal venous complex .

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784 - " sterile needle test " helps in differentiating ?

a- depth of burns

b- healing process

c- degenerative process

d- infection

answer is a . depth .

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785 - gasless abdomen in X ray is a sign of ?

answer : acute pancreatitis .

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786 - BCL 1 gene - mantle cell lymphoma

BCL 2 gene - follicular lymphoma .

MEN 1 gene - MEN 1 syndrome .

RET gene - MEN 2 syndrome .

MET gene - papillary renal tumor.

APC gene - familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome .

RB1 gene - retinoblastoma .

HPC 1 - hereditary prostate cancer .

EXT 1 and EXT 2 - exostosis - chondrosarcoma - hereditary multiple exostosis .

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 - breast , ovarian , colon and prostate cancers - hereditary breast ovarian cancer .

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787 - in the acronym " swelling " used for history and examination of a lump or swelling , the letter N stands for ?

answer : noise ( thrill / bruit ) .

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788 - in triage yellow means - neither minor nor immediate category .

in triage green means - ambulatory patients / minor .

black - dead / non salvageable

red - immediate .

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789 - precancerous lesions of the larynx are?

answer : keratosis laryngis and pachyderma laryngis .

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790 - which of the following does not move on deglutition?

a- sublingual dermoid

b- thyroid nodule

c- pretracheal lymphnode

d- thyroglossal cyst

answer is a . sublingual dermoid .

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791 - secondaries in neck with no obvious primary malignancy is most often due to ?

a- carcinoma stomach

b- carcinoma larynx

c- carcinoma nasopharynx

d- carcinoma thyroid

answer is c . carcinoma nasopharynx .

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792 - the most common site of the internal opening of the branchial fistula is at the ?

answer : tonsillar fossa .

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793 - radical dissection of the neck includes all except ?

a- cervical lymph nodes

b- sternocleidomastoid

c- phrenic nerves

d- internal jugular veins

answer is c . phrenic nerves .

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794 - regarding cervical rib , which statement is correct ?

a- it causes pressure on the ulnar nerve.

b- pain is located in the forearm.

c- it always connects to the scalene tubercle by a fibrous band.

d- it passes through the apex of the supraclavicular triangle

answer is a and b .

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795 - which of the parts of the body is not affected by leprosy ?

answer : ovary .

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796 - in AIDS, lymphadenopathy is most often due to ?

a- TB

b- lymphoma

c- non specific enlargement of lymph node

d- kaposi sarcoma

answer is c .

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797 - multiple fistula in ano - commonly occurs in ?

a- TB

b- LGV

c- gonococcal protocolitis

d- colloid carcinoma of rectum .

answer is a and b .

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798 - erysipelas is caused by ?

answer : streptococcus pyogenes .

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799 - most common type of oral carcinoma ?

answer : Lip .

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800 - which of the following causes the least irritation of the peritoneal cavity ?

a- bile

b- blood

c- gastric enzyme

d- pancreatic enzyme

answer is b . blood .

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