96 - test yourself in medicine - multiple choice questions in medicine with answers and explanations - 701 to 800

701 - glutathione is a tripeptide comprising of ?

answer : glutamic acid , cysteine and glycine .

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702 - pinta is caused by ?

answer : treponema cerateum .

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703 - pneumococcus : capsulated , gram positive , quellung or neufeld reaction , draughtsman concentric rings on culture , non-motile and oxidase and catalase negative .

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704 - liver transplantation was first done by ?

answer : starzl .

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705 - most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue typing ?

answer : HLA-D .

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706 - HLA matching is not necessary in which of the following organ transplantation ?

answer : liver transplantation .

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707 - vitamin C deficiency causes deficiency of which enzyme ?

answer : proline hydroxylase .

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708 - the couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of ?

answer : hepatic veins and portal vein .

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709 - post gonococcal stricture urethra is most commonly situated in the ?

answer : bulbar urethra .

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710 - reimplantation time for lower limb ?

answer : 8 hours .

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711 - after oesophagectomy the best substitute of oesophagus is ?

answer : stomach .

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712 - best and definitive diagnosis for breast lump ?

answer : open biopsy ( excision biopsy ).

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713 - first diagnostic procedure when the patient presents with lump is ?

answer : FNAC .

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714 - most malignant type of carcinoma breast ?

answer : mastitis carcinomatosa .

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715 - flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is ?

answer : TRAM .

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716 - spleniculi are accesory spleens , they are seen in ?

answer : hilum .

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717 - splenosis means ?

answer : rupture of spleen and distribution of its tissue on peritoneum .

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718 - spleen contains about how much percentage of the total blood volume ?

answer : 2 % .

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719 - removal of senescent RBC from the circulation by spleen is called ?

answer : culling .

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720 - triad of hypernephroma ?

answer : pain , hematuria and renal mass .

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721 - gredinogo's triad ( petrositis ) ?

answer : persistent ear discharge , retroorbital pain and 6th nerve palsy .

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722 - triad of behcet's syndrome ?

answer : recurrent oral ulcers , genital ulcers , iridocyclitis ( + skin ulcers make a tetrad ) .

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723 - triad of kwashiorkor ?

answer : oedema , growth retardation and mental changes ( apathy , listlessness , lethargy ) .

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724 - gold standard diagnostic test for varicose veins ?

answer : duplex imaging .

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725 - NNRTI s - DEN - delaviridine , efavirenz , nevirapine .

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726 - Neuritic Plaques - seen in Alzheimer's.

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727 - Coarse azurophilic granules in the leuko - seen in ALDER - REILLY SYNDRome .

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728 - Albumino-Cytologic Dissociation is pathognomic for Guillain-Barre (markedly increased protein in CSF with only modest increase in cell count).

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729 - Rouleaux Formation is pathognomic for multiple myeloma RBC's stacked as poker chips.

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730 - Podagra is pathognomic for gout (MP joint of hallux).

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731 - Wire Loop Glomeruli is pathognomic for lupus nephropathy type IV.

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732 - Chancre is pathognomic for primary Syphilis.

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733 - Gower's Maneuver is pathognomic for Duchenne's MD use of arms to stand.

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734 - S3 Heart Sound is pathognomic for L®R Shunt (VSD PDA) & Mitral Regurg & LV Failure.

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735 - Depigmentation Of Substantia Nigra is pathognomic for Parkinson's.

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736 - Cold Agglutinins is pathognomic for Mycoplasma pneumoniae & infectious mononucleosis.

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737 - Crescents In Bowman's Capsule is pathognomic for rapidly progressive (crescentic glomerulonephritis).

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738 - Painless Jaundice is pathognomic for pancreatic CA (head).

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739 - Erythema Chronicum Migrans is pathognomic for Lyme Disease .

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740 - Basophilic Stippling of RBCs is pathognomic for lead poisoning .

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741 - Thyroidization of Kidney is pathognomic for chronic pyelonephritis .

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742 - Tendinous Xanthomas is pathognomic for Familial Hypercholesterolemia .

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743 - S4 Heart Sound is pathognomic for Pulmonary Stenosis & Pulmonary HTN.

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744 - cleft lip is due to nonfusion of - maxillary process with the medial nasal process .

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745 - unilateral cleft lip is associated with - posterior displacement of alar cartilage .

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746 - most frequently fractured bone of the face ?

answer : nasal bone . then comes the zygomatic bone in the second place .

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747 - fracture mandible with edentulous jaw is best treated by ?

answer : external fixator .

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748 - common organism giving rise to UTI ?

answer : e coli .

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749 - acute urinary retention in a male child may be due to ?

answer : meatal ulcer with scabbing.

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750 - urinary cytology is a useful screening test for the diagnosis of ?

a- renal cell carcinoma

b- wilm's tumor

c- urothelial carcinoma

d- carcinoma prostate

answer is c . urothelial carcinoma .

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751 - low and fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in ?

answer : chronic renal failure .

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752 - on exertion urine stream increases in ?

answer : urethral stricture .

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753 - UTI exists when the bacterial count in 1 ml of midstream specimen of urine is ?

answer : 10 to the power of 5 or more . ( 100000 or more - 1 lakh or more ) .

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754 - site of transplantation in islet cell transplant for diabetes mellitus ?

answer : injected into the portal vein .

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755 - which of the following present as acute abdomen ?

a- acute intermittent porphyria

b- tabes

c- pneumonitis of the lower lobe

d- all

answer is d . all the above .

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756 - most common neoplasm of the appendix ?

answer : argentaffinoma ( carcinoid tumor ).

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757 - the most common site of enlargement of lymphnodes in hodgkin's lymphoma is ?

answer : mediastinal nodes .

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758 - treatment of acute lymphangitis ?

answer : antibiotics and rest .

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759 - total dose of radiation in hodgkins disease ?

answer : 3000 to 5000 rad ( 40 gy = 4000 rad ) .

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760 - most common site of lymphangiosarcoma ?

answer : post mastectomy edema of arm .

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761 - grade 1 lymphedema - edema disappearing after overnight rest ( pitting edema that disappears after lying down or rest )

grade 2 lymphedema - non pitting edema which does not disappear easily .

grade 3 lymphedema - lymphedema associated with irriversible skin changes like fibrosis and papillae .

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762 - most common infection after splenectomy ?

answer : streptococcal infection . ( mostly streptococcus pneumoniae )

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763 - most common complication after splenectomy is ?

answer : chest infection .

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764 - post splenectomy sepsis is common in ?

a- ITP

b- thalassemia

c- hereditary spherocytosis

d- trauma

answer is a , b , c .

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765 - the most important radiological sign of splenic rupture is ?

answer : obliteration of splenic shadow .

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766 - accidental small splenic rupture is treated with ?

answer : catgut suturing with omental patch .

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767 - splenic vein thrombosis is best treated by?

answer : splenectomy .

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768 - the rule of nine in the case of burns was first introduced by ?

answer : palaski and tennison and later modified by alexander wallace .

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769 - IV fluids rule for burns ?

answer : percentage of body surface area burnt X weight of the person in kgs X 4 = VOLUME IN ml . parkland formula .

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770 - fibroblast in healing wound is derived from ?

answer : local mesenchyme .

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771 - the vitamin which has inhibitory effect on wound healing ?

answer : vitamin E .

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772 - parathyroid adenoma most commonly involves which of the following site ?

a- thyroid substance

b- superior parathyroid lobe

c- inferior parathyroid lobe

d- in the mediastinum

answer is c . inferior parathyroid lobe .

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773 - most common cause of hypercalcemic crisis is ?

a- parathyroid adenoma

b- parathyroid hyperplasia

c- carcinoma breast

d- paget's disease

answer is c . carcinoma breast .

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774 - opsoclonus - myoclonus is a phenomenon seen in ?

a- neuroblastoma

b- wilms tumor

c- meningioma

d- cortical tuberculoma

answer is a . neuroblastoma .

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775 - extraperitoneal rupture of urinary bladder - where is urine collected ?

answer : above urogenital diaphragm in the perivesical space .

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776 - nerve which lies in association with the wharton's duct ?

answer : lingual nerve .

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779 - pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the parotid , submandibular and the sublingual salivary glands .

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780 - the most common tumor of the minor salivary glands ?

answer : adenoid cystic carcinoma followed by the mucoepidermoid carcinoma .

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781 - most common duct stones - submandibular gland .

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782 - in prostatic metastasis - the nodes which are most commonly involved ?

answer : obturator nodes .

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783 - which of the following is the most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy ?

answer : dorsal venous complex .

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784 - " sterile needle test " helps in differentiating ?

a- depth of burns

b- healing process

c- degenerative process

d- infection

answer is a . depth .

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785 - gasless abdomen in X ray is a sign of ?

answer : acute pancreatitis .

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786 - BCL 1 gene - mantle cell lymphoma

BCL 2 gene - follicular lymphoma .

MEN 1 gene - MEN 1 syndrome .

RET gene - MEN 2 syndrome .

MET gene - papillary renal tumor.

APC gene - familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome .

RB1 gene - retinoblastoma .

HPC 1 - hereditary prostate cancer .

EXT 1 and EXT 2 - exostosis - chondrosarcoma - hereditary multiple exostosis .

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 - breast , ovarian , colon and prostate cancers - hereditary breast ovarian cancer .

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787 - in the acronym " swelling " used for history and examination of a lump or swelling , the letter N stands for ?

answer : noise ( thrill / bruit ) .

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788 - in triage yellow means - neither minor nor immediate category .

in triage green means - ambulatory patients / minor .

black - dead / non salvageable

red - immediate .

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789 - precancerous lesions of the larynx are?

answer : keratosis laryngis and pachyderma laryngis .

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790 - which of the following does not move on deglutition?

a- sublingual dermoid

b- thyroid nodule

c- pretracheal lymphnode

d- thyroglossal cyst

answer is a . sublingual dermoid .

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791 - secondaries in neck with no obvious primary malignancy is most often due to ?

a- carcinoma stomach

b- carcinoma larynx

c- carcinoma nasopharynx

d- carcinoma thyroid

answer is c . carcinoma nasopharynx .

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792 - the most common site of the internal opening of the branchial fistula is at the ?

answer : tonsillar fossa .

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793 - radical dissection of the neck includes all except ?

a- cervical lymph nodes

b- sternocleidomastoid

c- phrenic nerves

d- internal jugular veins

answer is c . phrenic nerves .

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794 - regarding cervical rib , which statement is correct ?

a- it causes pressure on the ulnar nerve.

b- pain is located in the forearm.

c- it always connects to the scalene tubercle by a fibrous band.

d- it passes through the apex of the supraclavicular triangle

answer is a and b .

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795 - which of the parts of the body is not affected by leprosy ?

answer : ovary .

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796 - in AIDS, lymphadenopathy is most often due to ?

a- TB

b- lymphoma

c- non specific enlargement of lymph node

d- kaposi sarcoma

answer is c .

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797 - multiple fistula in ano - commonly occurs in ?

a- TB

b- LGV

c- gonococcal protocolitis

d- colloid carcinoma of rectum .

answer is a and b .

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798 - erysipelas is caused by ?

answer : streptococcus pyogenes .

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799 - most common type of oral carcinoma ?

answer : Lip .

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800 - which of the following causes the least irritation of the peritoneal cavity ?

a- bile

b- blood

c- gastric enzyme

d- pancreatic enzyme

answer is b . blood .

92 - test yourself - medical mcqs with answers and explanations - 301 to 400

301 - lantern on dome of st . paul - cervical fibroid .

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302 - combined OCP - failure rate - 0.1 %

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303 - Supination and pronation are done at all joints except

a. Superior radioulnar joint

b. Inferior radioulnar

c. Middle RUlnar joints

d. Radio carpal joint

answer is d . radio carpal joint .

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304 - whats collip`s hormone is

a) cortisol

b) insulin

c) thyroxine

d) parathormone

e) growth hormone

Its Parathormone .

Dosage of Parathormone is expressed in Collip Units

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305 - normal arterial blood gas values

all values from harri 16th

answer : partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2)----4.7-5.9kPA /35 - 45mmHg.

partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood(PaO2)----11-13kPa / 80 - 100mmHg.

pHof blood --- 7.38- 7.44.-----lab

HCO3 ---- 21 -28mmol/L / 21 - 30 meq /L.

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306 - Risk of development of chorio carcinoma is maximum after:

1. Spontaneous abortion

2. H.Mole

3. Full term pregnancy

4. Pre-term pregnancy

--------------------------------------

answer is 2

significantly higher risk:

Risk for the development of a hydatidiform or invasive mole or choriocarcinoma include:

a prior mole (30 times the risk)

maternal age greater than 40 years (5 times) or less than 20 years (1.5 times)

a previous spontaneous abortion (twice the risk)

At slightly lower risk:

Eating a diet high in vitamin A and having one or more children without having a previous abortion is statistically correlated with a lower than average risk of developing a complete mole.

Choriocarcinoma most frequently follows a previous complete hydatidiform mole (50%), though 25% may follow a normal pregnancy or spontaneous abortion.

according to OHCS (oxford series of clinical specialities)

50% of choriocarcinoma follows a benign mole

20% follow abortions

10% follow normal pregnancy.

so ans here is H.MOLE.

between one half & 2/3rds of malignant GTDs follow evacuation of a complete or partial mole.in that 50-70% are invasive moles & 30-50% are chorioca.PSST can follow any pregnancy event.

chorioca is 1000 times more likely to follow a mole than normal pregnancy.the risk is much higher with a complete mole than a partialmole.

ref:COG vol46, number3,547-554.

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307 - what is ondine curse ?

ondine curse is SLEEP APNOEA SYNDROME..

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308 - what is albert regime for diabetics on insulin?

when u do not exactly know the RBS levels and involves giving 8 units of plain insulin to the diabetic with 5% DNS.

Alberti & Thomas regime of insulin dosing schedule for diabetic patients used when due to slow lab works near real time blood sugar levels, unlike today, were not possible.

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309 - The earliest symptom in primary biliary cirrhosis is

a. Jaundice

b. Pruritis

c. Melanosis

d. Vomiting

The correct answer is B

Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is a disease characterized by inflammatory destruction of the small bile ducts within the liver. PBC eventually leads to cirrhosis of the liver.

Most patients with PBC present with pruritus (itching). After pruritus, jaundice (yellow skin caused by bilirubin retention) is the most common presenting symptom.

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310 - Tetanus toxoid given during antenatal period will protect

a. Only the child

b. Only the mother

c. Both mother and child

d. Partially

The correct answer is C

Tetanus spores infect women and children through unsafe or unclean deliveries, accounting for an estimated 5% of maternal deaths and 14% of neonatal deaths.Tetanus toxoid vaccines can prevent infections and save the lives of mothers and infants alike. Pregnant women should receive at least two doses of tetanus toxoid, which provide one to three years of protection.

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311 - Fleischer ring is seen in

a. Tay Sachs disease

b. Keratoconus

c. Siderosis Bulbi

d. Contusion injury

The correct answer is B

Fleischer rings are pigmented rings in the peripheral cornea, resulting from iron deposition in basal epithelial cells. They are usually yellowish to dark-brown, and may be complete or broken.

Fleischer rings are indicative of keratoconus, a degenerative corneal condition that causes the cornea to thin and change to a conic shape.

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312 - Fracture dislocation of 2nd and 3rd cervical vertebrae is common in

a. Partial hanging

b. lynching

c. Judicial hanging

d. throttling

The correct answer is C

In judicial hanging the posterior arch of the axis is snapped clean off and remains fixed to the third vertebra, while the atlas, the Odontoid process, and the anterior arch of the axis remain fixed to skull.

Schneider and colleagues first introduced the term hangman fracture into the modern medical lexicon in 1965 when they described eight patients who sustained bilateral fractures through the neural arch of the axis, with or without dislocation of the body of the axis from that of the third cervical vertebra. According to these authors, "This type of fracture-dislocation occurs in modern judicial hanging and in some instances of traffic accidents".

Most likely, the forces involved in judicial hanging are much greater than those sustained by many motor vehicle accident victims, and the spinal disruption between C2 and C3 caused by judicial hanging is 3 -considerably greater.

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313 - Antiglomerular Basement Membrane Antibodies are seen in

a. Goodpasture syndrome

b. Henoch-Schonlein pupura

c. Heymann nephritis

d. Systemic Lupus erythematosus

The correct answer is A

Goodpasture syndrome (antiglomerular basement membrane disease)

a. The cause is antibodies (antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies) directed against antigens in glomerular and pulmonary alveolar basement membranes.

b. Fluorescent antibody studies for IgG demonstrate linear immunofluorescence.

c. Clinical manifestations include:

(1) Nephritic syndrome

(2) Pneumonitis with hemoptysis (hemorrhagic pneumonitis)

(3) Peak incidence in men in their mid-20s

(4) RPGN crescentic morphology with linear immunofluorescence

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314 - Regarding twins

a. Most are monozygotic (identical) (False)

Explanation: Two thirds are dizygotic.

b. Monozygotic twins face the greatest risks (True)

c. Pre-term labour is a major cause of mortality (True)

d. Infant mortality rates are higher for twins than for singletons (True)

Explanation: All categories of perinatal and infant mortality rates are higher for twins.

e. There is an increased incidence of pre-eclampsia (True).

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315 - among the pulses , the highest quantity of protein is present in ?

a- soyabean

b- red gram

c- green gram

d- black gram

answer is a . soya bean .

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316 - the most common tumor of the minor salivary gland ?

answer : adenoid cystic carcinoma followed by mucoepidermoid carcinoma .

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317 - which of the following local anaesthetics is also an antiarrythmic ?

a- lignocaine

b- procaine

c- bupivacaine

d- cocaine

answer is a . lignocaine .

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318 - keinbock's disease - avascular necrosis of lunate .

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319 - which of the following aminoacids are purely ketogenic ?

answers : leucine and lysine .

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320 - von brun's nest is seen in ?

a- normal urothelium

b- transitional cell carcinoma

c- squamous cell carcinoma

d- adeno carcinoma

answer is a . normal urothelium .

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321 - trotter's triad is seen in ?

answer : carcinoma nasopharynx .

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322 - the drug of choice in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia ?

answer : adenosine .

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323 - antibody produced during primary immune response ?

answer : Ig M .

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324 - mineral oils are used in mosquito control measures as ?

a- larvicide

b- adulticide

c- space spray

d- a personal protection method

answer is a . as a larvicide .

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325 - pneumonia alba is due to treponema pallidum .

congenital fatal prenatal syphilis .

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326 - dose of anti D gamma globulin given after first trimester abortion is ?

answer : 50 micrograms .

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327 - ' bird of prey sign ' is seen in barium examination of which condition ?

answer : sigmoid volvulus .

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328 - perioral pallor and dennie's line - atopic dermatitis .

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329 - the preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland travel in ?

ans: lesser petrosal nerve .

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330 - in normal conditions of temperature and atmosphere , the rate of cooling of dead body is ?

answer : 1.5 degree fahrenheit / hour

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331 - the earliest clinical sign of vitamin A deficiency ?

a- conjunctival xerosis

b- bitots spots

c- corneal xerosis

d- keratomalacia

answer is a .

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332 - SSPE is associated with - measles .

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333 - buruli ulcer - causative organism - mycobacterium ulcerans .

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334 - commonest complication of CSOM ?

a- mastoiditis

b- brain abscess

c- sub periosteal abscess

d- meningitis

answer is a . mastoiditis .

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335 - superior colliculus is concerned with ?

a- vision

b- hearing

c- olfaction

d- pain sensation

answer is a . vision , but a little bit of hearing too .

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336 - oral contraceptive of choice in a lactating woman is ?

a- mini pill

b- monophasic pill

c- biphasic pill

d- triphasic pill

answer is a . mini pill .

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337 - spina ventosa is caused by ?

answer : tuberculosis . TUBERCULOUS DACTYLITIS is called spina ventosa .

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338 - ECG change seen in hyperkalemia ?

answer : narrowing and peaking of T waves .

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339 - the poison that can be detected afer death in hair is ?

ans : arsenic .

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340 - the most common site of ectopic pheochromocytoma ?

answer: organ of zuckerkandl .

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341 - pawn ball megakaryocytes - MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROME .

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342 - argon laser trabeculoplasty is done in ?

a- open angle glaucoma

b- closed angle glaucoma

c- secondary glaucoma

d- angel recession glaucoma

answer is a . open angle glaucoma .

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343 - grey turner's sign - flank discoloration - acute pancreatitis .

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344 - yellow fever is absent in india because ?

a- climatic conditions are not favorable

b- virus is not present

c- vector mosquito is absent

d- population is immune

answer is b . vectors are plenty .

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345 - facial angle is a rough index of the degree of development of the ?

a- brain

b- jaws

c- nose

d- eyes

answer is a . brain .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------

346 - sclera is thinnest at ?

a- insertion of recti

b- limbus

c- posterior pole

d- equator

answer is a.

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347 - the recommended drug for the prophylaxis of influenza A and B ?

answer : amantidine .

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348 - post mortem rigidity first starts in ?

a- eyelids

b- neck

c- upper limbs

d- lower limbs

answer is a .

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349 - gartner's duct is a remnant of ?

answer : wolffian duct .

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350 - emporiatrics deals with the health of ?

answer : travellers .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------

351 - fetishism - sexual perversion ?

answer : sexual pleasure derived from non living objects .

------------------------------------------------------------------------------

352 - agoraphobia is a disorder characterised by all of the following except ?

a- visual hallucinations

b- avoidance of situations in which it is difficult to obtain help

c- presence of panic symptoms

d- avoidance of being outside alone

answer is a .

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353 - anopheles species most commonly found in coastal region ?

answer : anopheles stephensi

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354 - sex can be established by examining hair root cells for the presence of ?

answer - barr body .

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------

355 - bhopal gas tragedy - point source epidemic .

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356 - cryptomenorrhea - hidden menses - causes ?

a- ashermann's syndrome

b- imperforate hymen ( hematocolpus )

c- mullerian agenesis

d- all

answer is only b .

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357 - long term tamoxifen therapy - endometrial carcinoma .

tamoxifen is used in the therapy of breast cancer .

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358 - endometrial carcinoma - inguinal lymph nodes involved - stage IV B .

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

359 - dysgerminoma - chemotherapy ?

answer : bleomycin , etoposide and cisplatin . BECk .

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360 - attacks of flushing and cyanosis occur in which type of ovarian tumor ?

a- granulosa cell tumor

b- struma ovarii

c- krukenberg

d- arrhenoblastoma

e- carcinoid tumor of ovary

answer is e .

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361 - meig's syndrome - most common ovarian tumor?

fibroma .

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362 - peenaud's maneouvre - breech presentation .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------

363 - commonest causeof breech ?

ans: prematurity .

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364 - most common organ involved in retroperitoneal fibrosis ?

answer: ureter .

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365 - most common type of intussusception ?

answer: ileo-colic intussusception .

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366 - most common cause of urethral stricture in a young person ?

a- trauma

b- gonococcal

c- syphilis

d- tuberculosis

answer is a . trauma .

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367 - campimetry is used to study ?

answer : field charting .

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368 - which is the most common cause of cotton wool spots ?

answer : diabetes mellitus .

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369 - drug of choice in bacterial vaginosis ?

answer : metronidazole. in pregnancy also metronidazole .

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370 - best treatment for senile vaginitis ?

answer : HRT + local estrogen cream .

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371 - in high myopia - hemorrhage at macular spot - foster-fuchs fleck .

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372 - roth's spots - fundus - subacute bacterial endocarditis .

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373 - TB genital tract - most common age affected ?

answer : 20 to 30 years .

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374 - crocodile tears ?

answer : abnormal 7 th nerve regeneration .

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375 - tears are produced in the new born after how many weeks ?

answer : 1 week .

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376 - horner tranta's spots are seen in ?

answer : vernal conjunctivitis ( spring catarrh )

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377 - WHO definition of blindness is a visual acuity in the better eye equal to or less than ?

answer : 3 / 60 . ( check the answer again )

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378 - best diagnosis in best disease ?

answer : EOG .

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379 - which polyp has maximum malignant potential ?

a- sessile

b- pedunculated

c- superficial spreading

d- any of the above

answer is a . sessile .

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380 - most common benign tumor of stomach ?

a- adenoma .

b- lipoma

c- hamartoma

d- leiyomyoma

answer is a . actually adenoma is second most common and has high malignant potential , but hyperplastic ( regenerative ) polyps is the first common type of benign tumor of stomach .

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381 - the first gastrectomy was performed in 1881 by ?

answer : billroth .

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382 - trosier's sign - left supraclavicular lymph node enlargement .

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383 - precancerous condition of the stomach ?

a- lipoma

b- linitis plastica

c- atrophic gastritis

d- hyperacidity

answer is c . atrophic gastritis .

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384 - best time for surgery of hypospadias ?

a- 1-4 months of age

b- 6-10 months of age

c- 12 - 18 months of age

d- 2-4 years of age

answer is b . 6-10 months of age . 6 - 12 months of age exactly speaking .

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385 - best investigation to diagnose tubal patency ?

a- laparotomy

b- laparoscopic chromotubation

c- rubin's test

d- HSG

answe is b . laparoscopic chromotubation .

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386 - insensible water loss per day ?

answer : 800 to 1000 ml .

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387 - how long can the blood be stored in CPD - A ?

a- 21 days

b- 12 days

c- 28 days

d- 48 days

answer - c . upto 35 days . only CPD - 21 days .

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388 - maximum life span of transfused RBC ?

answer - 50 days .

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389 - rosenthal syndrome - deficiency of which clotting factor ?

answer - 11 th factor . hemophilia C .

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390 - platelets are stored at ?

answer - 20 to 24 degrees for 5 days

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391 - which one of the following blood fractions is stored at 40 degree centigrade ?

a- cryoprecipitate

b- human albumin

c- platelet concentrate

d- packed RBC

answer is a . cryoprecipitate .

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392 - following TPN weight loss is seen ?

answer : upto 7 days .

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393 - in prostatic metastasis the site most common affected ?

a- obturator nodes

b- perivesical nodes

c- presacral nodes

d- para- aortic nodes

answer is a . obturator nodes .

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394 - marions disease ?

answer : muscular hypertrophy of internal sphincter of urinary bladder .

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395 - mc Neal 's peripheral zone - PROSTATE - carcinoma .

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396 - golf hole ureter - TB ureter .

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397 - boari's operation - bladder flap .

398 - Which of the following actions is related to Thiazide diuretics?

A. Hyperuricemia

B. Hyperkalemia

C. Hypoglycemia in Diabetics

D. Hypercalcemia

answer is a . thiazides are related to hyperuricemia.

399 - in the perspective of the busy life schedule in the modern society the accepted minimum period of sexual cohabilitation resulting in no offspring for a couple to be declared infertile is ?

answer is 1 year .

400 - visible spectrum - 400 to 700 mu