301 - lantern on dome of st . paul - cervical fibroid .
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302 - combined OCP - failure rate - 0.1 %
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303 - Supination and pronation are done at all joints except
a. Superior radioulnar joint
b. Inferior radioulnar
c. Middle RUlnar joints
d. Radio carpal joint
answer is d . radio carpal joint .
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304 - whats collip`s hormone is
a) cortisol
b) insulin
c) thyroxine
d) parathormone
e) growth hormone
Its Parathormone .
Dosage of Parathormone is expressed in Collip Units
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305 - normal arterial blood gas values
all values from harri 16th
answer : partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2)----4.7-5.9kPA /35 - 45mmHg.
partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood(PaO2)----11-13kPa / 80 - 100mmHg.
pHof blood --- 7.38- 7.44.-----lab
HCO3 ---- 21 -28mmol/L / 21 - 30 meq /L.
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306 - Risk of development of chorio carcinoma is maximum after:
1. Spontaneous abortion
2. H.Mole
3. Full term pregnancy
4. Pre-term pregnancy
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answer is 2
significantly higher risk:
Risk for the development of a hydatidiform or invasive mole or choriocarcinoma include:
a prior mole (30 times the risk)
maternal age greater than 40 years (5 times) or less than 20 years (1.5 times)
a previous spontaneous abortion (twice the risk)
At slightly lower risk:
Eating a diet high in vitamin A and having one or more children without having a previous abortion is statistically correlated with a lower than average risk of developing a complete mole.
Choriocarcinoma most frequently follows a previous complete hydatidiform mole (50%), though 25% may follow a normal pregnancy or spontaneous abortion.
according to OHCS (oxford series of clinical specialities)
50% of choriocarcinoma follows a benign mole
20% follow abortions
10% follow normal pregnancy.
so ans here is H.MOLE.
between one half & 2/3rds of malignant GTDs follow evacuation of a complete or partial mole.in that 50-70% are invasive moles & 30-50% are chorioca.PSST can follow any pregnancy event.
chorioca is 1000 times more likely to follow a mole than normal pregnancy.the risk is much higher with a complete mole than a partialmole.
ref:COG vol46, number3,547-554.
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307 - what is ondine curse ?
ondine curse is SLEEP APNOEA SYNDROME..
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308 - what is albert regime for diabetics on insulin?
when u do not exactly know the RBS levels and involves giving 8 units of plain insulin to the diabetic with 5% DNS.
Alberti & Thomas regime of insulin dosing schedule for diabetic patients used when due to slow lab works near real time blood sugar levels, unlike today, were not possible.
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309 - The earliest symptom in primary biliary cirrhosis is
a. Jaundice
b. Pruritis
c. Melanosis
d. Vomiting
The correct answer is B
Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is a disease characterized by inflammatory destruction of the small bile ducts within the liver. PBC eventually leads to cirrhosis of the liver.
Most patients with PBC present with pruritus (itching). After pruritus, jaundice (yellow skin caused by bilirubin retention) is the most common presenting symptom.
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310 - Tetanus toxoid given during antenatal period will protect
a. Only the child
b. Only the mother
c. Both mother and child
d. Partially
The correct answer is C
Tetanus spores infect women and children through unsafe or unclean deliveries, accounting for an estimated 5% of maternal deaths and 14% of neonatal deaths.Tetanus toxoid vaccines can prevent infections and save the lives of mothers and infants alike. Pregnant women should receive at least two doses of tetanus toxoid, which provide one to three years of protection.
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311 - Fleischer ring is seen in
a. Tay Sachs disease
b. Keratoconus
c. Siderosis Bulbi
d. Contusion injury
The correct answer is B
Fleischer rings are pigmented rings in the peripheral cornea, resulting from iron deposition in basal epithelial cells. They are usually yellowish to dark-brown, and may be complete or broken.
Fleischer rings are indicative of keratoconus, a degenerative corneal condition that causes the cornea to thin and change to a conic shape.
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312 - Fracture dislocation of 2nd and 3rd cervical vertebrae is common in
a. Partial hanging
b. lynching
c. Judicial hanging
d. throttling
The correct answer is C
In judicial hanging the posterior arch of the axis is snapped clean off and remains fixed to the third vertebra, while the atlas, the Odontoid process, and the anterior arch of the axis remain fixed to skull.
Schneider and colleagues first introduced the term hangman fracture into the modern medical lexicon in 1965 when they described eight patients who sustained bilateral fractures through the neural arch of the axis, with or without dislocation of the body of the axis from that of the third cervical vertebra. According to these authors, "This type of fracture-dislocation occurs in modern judicial hanging and in some instances of traffic accidents".
Most likely, the forces involved in judicial hanging are much greater than those sustained by many motor vehicle accident victims, and the spinal disruption between C2 and C3 caused by judicial hanging is 3 -considerably greater.
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313 - Antiglomerular Basement Membrane Antibodies are seen in
a. Goodpasture syndrome
b. Henoch-Schonlein pupura
c. Heymann nephritis
d. Systemic Lupus erythematosus
The correct answer is A
Goodpasture syndrome (antiglomerular basement membrane disease)
a. The cause is antibodies (antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies) directed against antigens in glomerular and pulmonary alveolar basement membranes.
b. Fluorescent antibody studies for IgG demonstrate linear immunofluorescence.
c. Clinical manifestations include:
(1) Nephritic syndrome
(2) Pneumonitis with hemoptysis (hemorrhagic pneumonitis)
(3) Peak incidence in men in their mid-20s
(4) RPGN crescentic morphology with linear immunofluorescence
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314 - Regarding twins
a. Most are monozygotic (identical) (False)
Explanation: Two thirds are dizygotic.
b. Monozygotic twins face the greatest risks (True)
c. Pre-term labour is a major cause of mortality (True)
d. Infant mortality rates are higher for twins than for singletons (True)
Explanation: All categories of perinatal and infant mortality rates are higher for twins.
e. There is an increased incidence of pre-eclampsia (True).
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315 - among the pulses , the highest quantity of protein is present in ?
a- soyabean
b- red gram
c- green gram
d- black gram
answer is a . soya bean .
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316 - the most common tumor of the minor salivary gland ?
answer : adenoid cystic carcinoma followed by mucoepidermoid carcinoma .
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317 - which of the following local anaesthetics is also an antiarrythmic ?
a- lignocaine
b- procaine
c- bupivacaine
d- cocaine
answer is a . lignocaine .
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318 - keinbock's disease - avascular necrosis of lunate .
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319 - which of the following aminoacids are purely ketogenic ?
answers : leucine and lysine .
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320 - von brun's nest is seen in ?
a- normal urothelium
b- transitional cell carcinoma
c- squamous cell carcinoma
d- adeno carcinoma
answer is a . normal urothelium .
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321 - trotter's triad is seen in ?
answer : carcinoma nasopharynx .
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322 - the drug of choice in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia ?
answer : adenosine .
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323 - antibody produced during primary immune response ?
answer : Ig M .
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324 - mineral oils are used in mosquito control measures as ?
a- larvicide
b- adulticide
c- space spray
d- a personal protection method
answer is a . as a larvicide .
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325 - pneumonia alba is due to treponema pallidum .
congenital fatal prenatal syphilis .
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326 - dose of anti D gamma globulin given after first trimester abortion is ?
answer : 50 micrograms .
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327 - ' bird of prey sign ' is seen in barium examination of which condition ?
answer : sigmoid volvulus .
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328 - perioral pallor and dennie's line - atopic dermatitis .
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329 - the preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland travel in ?
ans: lesser petrosal nerve .
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330 - in normal conditions of temperature and atmosphere , the rate of cooling of dead body is ?
answer : 1.5 degree fahrenheit / hour
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331 - the earliest clinical sign of vitamin A deficiency ?
a- conjunctival xerosis
b- bitots spots
c- corneal xerosis
d- keratomalacia
answer is a .
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332 - SSPE is associated with - measles .
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333 - buruli ulcer - causative organism - mycobacterium ulcerans .
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334 - commonest complication of CSOM ?
a- mastoiditis
b- brain abscess
c- sub periosteal abscess
d- meningitis
answer is a . mastoiditis .
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335 - superior colliculus is concerned with ?
a- vision
b- hearing
c- olfaction
d- pain sensation
answer is a . vision , but a little bit of hearing too .
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336 - oral contraceptive of choice in a lactating woman is ?
a- mini pill
b- monophasic pill
c- biphasic pill
d- triphasic pill
answer is a . mini pill .
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337 - spina ventosa is caused by ?
answer : tuberculosis . TUBERCULOUS DACTYLITIS is called spina ventosa .
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338 - ECG change seen in hyperkalemia ?
answer : narrowing and peaking of T waves .
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339 - the poison that can be detected afer death in hair is ?
ans : arsenic .
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340 - the most common site of ectopic pheochromocytoma ?
answer: organ of zuckerkandl .
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341 - pawn ball megakaryocytes - MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROME .
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342 - argon laser trabeculoplasty is done in ?
a- open angle glaucoma
b- closed angle glaucoma
c- secondary glaucoma
d- angel recession glaucoma
answer is a . open angle glaucoma .
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343 - grey turner's sign - flank discoloration - acute pancreatitis .
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344 - yellow fever is absent in india because ?
a- climatic conditions are not favorable
b- virus is not present
c- vector mosquito is absent
d- population is immune
answer is b . vectors are plenty .
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345 - facial angle is a rough index of the degree of development of the ?
a- brain
b- jaws
c- nose
d- eyes
answer is a . brain .
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346 - sclera is thinnest at ?
a- insertion of recti
b- limbus
c- posterior pole
d- equator
answer is a.
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347 - the recommended drug for the prophylaxis of influenza A and B ?
answer : amantidine .
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348 - post mortem rigidity first starts in ?
a- eyelids
b- neck
c- upper limbs
d- lower limbs
answer is a .
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349 - gartner's duct is a remnant of ?
answer : wolffian duct .
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350 - emporiatrics deals with the health of ?
answer : travellers .
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351 - fetishism - sexual perversion ?
answer : sexual pleasure derived from non living objects .
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352 - agoraphobia is a disorder characterised by all of the following except ?
a- visual hallucinations
b- avoidance of situations in which it is difficult to obtain help
c- presence of panic symptoms
d- avoidance of being outside alone
answer is a .
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353 - anopheles species most commonly found in coastal region ?
answer : anopheles stephensi
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354 - sex can be established by examining hair root cells for the presence of ?
answer - barr body .
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355 - bhopal gas tragedy - point source epidemic .
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356 - cryptomenorrhea - hidden menses - causes ?
a- ashermann's syndrome
b- imperforate hymen ( hematocolpus )
c- mullerian agenesis
d- all
answer is only b .
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357 - long term tamoxifen therapy - endometrial carcinoma .
tamoxifen is used in the therapy of breast cancer .
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358 - endometrial carcinoma - inguinal lymph nodes involved - stage IV B .
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359 - dysgerminoma - chemotherapy ?
answer : bleomycin , etoposide and cisplatin . BECk .
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360 - attacks of flushing and cyanosis occur in which type of ovarian tumor ?
a- granulosa cell tumor
b- struma ovarii
c- krukenberg
d- arrhenoblastoma
e- carcinoid tumor of ovary
answer is e .
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361 - meig's syndrome - most common ovarian tumor?
fibroma .
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362 - peenaud's maneouvre - breech presentation .
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363 - commonest causeof breech ?
ans: prematurity .
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364 - most common organ involved in retroperitoneal fibrosis ?
answer: ureter .
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365 - most common type of intussusception ?
answer: ileo-colic intussusception .
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366 - most common cause of urethral stricture in a young person ?
a- trauma
b- gonococcal
c- syphilis
d- tuberculosis
answer is a . trauma .
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367 - campimetry is used to study ?
answer : field charting .
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368 - which is the most common cause of cotton wool spots ?
answer : diabetes mellitus .
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369 - drug of choice in bacterial vaginosis ?
answer : metronidazole. in pregnancy also metronidazole .
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370 - best treatment for senile vaginitis ?
answer : HRT + local estrogen cream .
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371 - in high myopia - hemorrhage at macular spot - foster-fuchs fleck .
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372 - roth's spots - fundus - subacute bacterial endocarditis .
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373 - TB genital tract - most common age affected ?
answer : 20 to 30 years .
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374 - crocodile tears ?
answer : abnormal 7 th nerve regeneration .
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375 - tears are produced in the new born after how many weeks ?
answer : 1 week .
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376 - horner tranta's spots are seen in ?
answer : vernal conjunctivitis ( spring catarrh )
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377 - WHO definition of blindness is a visual acuity in the better eye equal to or less than ?
answer : 3 / 60 . ( check the answer again )
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378 - best diagnosis in best disease ?
answer : EOG .
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379 - which polyp has maximum malignant potential ?
a- sessile
b- pedunculated
c- superficial spreading
d- any of the above
answer is a . sessile .
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380 - most common benign tumor of stomach ?
a- adenoma .
b- lipoma
c- hamartoma
d- leiyomyoma
answer is a . actually adenoma is second most common and has high malignant potential , but hyperplastic ( regenerative ) polyps is the first common type of benign tumor of stomach .
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381 - the first gastrectomy was performed in 1881 by ?
answer : billroth .
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382 - trosier's sign - left supraclavicular lymph node enlargement .
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383 - precancerous condition of the stomach ?
a- lipoma
b- linitis plastica
c- atrophic gastritis
d- hyperacidity
answer is c . atrophic gastritis .
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384 - best time for surgery of hypospadias ?
a- 1-4 months of age
b- 6-10 months of age
c- 12 - 18 months of age
d- 2-4 years of age
answer is b . 6-10 months of age . 6 - 12 months of age exactly speaking .
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385 - best investigation to diagnose tubal patency ?
a- laparotomy
b- laparoscopic chromotubation
c- rubin's test
d- HSG
answe is b . laparoscopic chromotubation .
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386 - insensible water loss per day ?
answer : 800 to 1000 ml .
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387 - how long can the blood be stored in CPD - A ?
a- 21 days
b- 12 days
c- 28 days
d- 48 days
answer - c . upto 35 days . only CPD - 21 days .
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388 - maximum life span of transfused RBC ?
answer - 50 days .
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389 - rosenthal syndrome - deficiency of which clotting factor ?
answer - 11 th factor . hemophilia C .
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390 - platelets are stored at ?
answer - 20 to 24 degrees for 5 days
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391 - which one of the following blood fractions is stored at 40 degree centigrade ?
a- cryoprecipitate
b- human albumin
c- platelet concentrate
d- packed RBC
answer is a . cryoprecipitate .
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392 - following TPN weight loss is seen ?
answer : upto 7 days .
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393 - in prostatic metastasis the site most common affected ?
a- obturator nodes
b- perivesical nodes
c- presacral nodes
d- para- aortic nodes
answer is a . obturator nodes .
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394 - marions disease ?
answer : muscular hypertrophy of internal sphincter of urinary bladder .
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395 - mc Neal 's peripheral zone - PROSTATE - carcinoma .
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396 - golf hole ureter - TB ureter .
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397 - boari's operation - bladder flap .
398 - Which of the following actions is related to Thiazide diuretics?
A. Hyperuricemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypoglycemia in Diabetics
D. Hypercalcemia
answer is a . thiazides are related to hyperuricemia.
399 - in the perspective of the busy life schedule in the modern society the accepted minimum period of sexual cohabilitation resulting in no offspring for a couple to be declared infertile is ?
answer is 1 year .
400 - visible spectrum - 400 to 700 mu
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