1 - shock is clinically best assessed by ?
a- urine output
b- central venous pressure ( CV)
c- blood pressure
d- hydration
answer is a . urine output .
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2 - which of the following is the best parameter to assess fluid intake in a polytrauma patient ?
a- urine output
b- blood pressure
c- pulse
d- pulse oximetry
the answer is a . urine output is a quantitative and relatively reliable indicator of organ perfusion . the adequacy of resuscitation can best be assessed by urine output and blood pH.
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3 - oral contraceptives give protection against all of the following except ?
a- endometrial carcinoma
b- osteoporosis
c- benign breast disease
d- hepatic adenoma .
answer is d . remember the mnemonic THE COBRAS in UFO POEM .
T - THYROID AUTOIMMUNE DISORDERS
H - HIRSUTISM
E - ENDOMETRIAL CARCINOMA
C - COLORECTAL CANCER
O - OVARIAN CARCINOMA
B - BENIGN BREAST DISEASE ( FIBROADENOSIS )
R - RHEUMATOID ARTHRITIS
A - ANEMIA AND ACNE
S - SALPINGITIS ( PID ) in
U - UTERINE CANCER
F - FIBROIDS UTERUS ( SUB-MUCOUS EXCEPTION )
O - OVARIAN CYSTS
P - PELVIC INFLAMMATORY DISEASE
O - OSTEOPOROSIS AND OSTEOPENIA
E - ECTOPIC PREGNANCY
M - MITTELSCHMERZ , MENORRHAGIA , DYSMENORRHEA , PREMENSTRUAL TENSION , POLYMENORRHEA .
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4 - froment's test is used to test ?
a- instrinsic muscles of hand
b- intrinsic muscles of feet
c- fracture of elbow
d- none
answer is a . holding a paper between the thumb and index fingers of both hands and then the paper is dragged by another person.weakness of the adductor pollicis and excessive contraction of the extensor hallucis longus , leading to the flexion of the affected side thumb .
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5 - whistling faces , severe CTEV and short stature are the features of which syndrome ?
a - freeman sheldon syndrome
b -
c - balint's syndrome
d - none
answer is a . freeman sheldon syndrome . to see how a whistling faces will look like see page number 438 in bailey and love 23 rd edition . it looks as though the child is trying to whistle .
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6 - immediate management of a patient with multiple fractures and fluid loss includes the infusion of ?
a- blood
b- dextran
c- normal saline
d- ringer lactate
the answer is d . ringer lactate .
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7 - urine production begins at ?
a- 2 months of age
b- 4 months of age
c- at term
d- just after delivery
answer is b . at 4 months of age .
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8 - all of the following are definitive signs of pregnancy except ?
a- amenorrhea
b- fetal movements
c- fetal heart sounds
d- fetal skeleton seen on x ray
answer is a . remember the placental sign where even after pregnancy is confirmed , bleeding occurs which coincides with the menstruation .
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9 - bandl's ring is also called as ?
a- constriction ring
b- schroeder's ring
c- retraction ring
d- cervical dystocia
answer is c . retraction ring .
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10 - shoulder dystocia result in the following ?
a- sternomastoid swelling
b- erb's palsy
c- klumpke's palsy
d- none
answer is a ,b , c . all three can result due to shoulder dystocia.
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11 - which is the most likely complication of intrauterine death ?
a- hypofibrinogenemia
b- sterility
c- cervical tear
d- none of the above
answer is a . hypofibrinogenemia .
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12 - life span of neonatal RBC ?
a- 120 days
b- 100 days
c- 6 months
d- one year
answer is b . life span of adult RBC is 120 days .
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13 - the most common cause of drug induced esophagitis ?
a- glagyl
b- indomethacin
c- doxycycline
d- steroids
answer is c . doxycycline .
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14 - patient with congenital lactase deficiency will experience distension , flatulence and diarrhea on ingestion of ?
a- glucose
b- sucrose
c- milk
d- eggs
answer is c . milk .
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15 - enzyme appearing early in myocardial infarction ?
a- CPK
b- LDH
c- SGOT
d- SGPT
the answer is a . CPK .
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16 - pulsus parvus and pulsus bisferiens both are seen in ?
a- aortic stenosis
b- pulmonary stenosis
c- left ventricular failure
d- cardiac tamponade .
answer is a . aortic stenosis .
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17 - giant a waves are seen in ?
a- pulmonary stenosis
b- mitral stenosis
c- complete heart block
d- ebstein's anamoly
answer is a and d . both pulmonary stenosis and ebstein's anamoly .
the causes of giant a waves on JVP are :
1- tricuspid stenosis
2- pulmonary stenosis
3- pulmonary hypertension
4- ebstein's anamoly
the causes of cannon a waves on JVP occuring regularly are :
1- during junctional rhythm
the causes of cannon a waves on JVP occuring irregularly are :
1- ATRIOVENTRICULAR DISSOCIATION WITH VENTRICULAR TACHYCARDIA .
2- COMPLETE HEART BLOCK .
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18 - Anti-diuretic diuretic hormone (ADH)
(a) Is produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland
(b) Is released by neurosecretion
(c) Serum levels are increased by a low plasma osmolality
(d) Secretion is increased in the early post-operative period
(e) Acts by increasing the permeability of the distal convoluted tubule
only b and d are true . ADH is released by neurosecretion from the posterior pituitary gland. The cell bodies of the neurosecretory cells are found in the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus. ADH is release in response to an increase in plasma osmolality. It acts by increasing water reabsorption by the renal collecting ducts. Increased ADH is part of the stress response seen in the early post-operative period.
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19 - Le facie sympathique is seen
a] drowning
b] hanging
c] strangulation
d] choking
the answer is b . hanging .
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20 - in hanging first to be occluded is ?
a] jugular vein
b] carotid artery
c] trachea.
d] vertebral artery
answer is a . jugular vein . lets have a mnemonic for this . JC diwakar TV .
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21 - lynching is a form of ?
a] hanging
b] strangulation
c] throttling
d] smoothering
answer is a . hanging .
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22 - all of the following cause microcytic hypochromic anemia except ?
a- lead poisoning ( sideroblastic anemia )
b- thalassemia
c- iron deficiency anemia
d- anemia of chronic disease
e- fanconi anemia
answer is e .
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23 - the chromosomal defect in adult polycystic disease is on which chromosome ?
a- 16
b- 17
c- 18
d- 19
answer is a . polycystic for padhahaaru . cool .
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24 - onion peel appearance on x ray is seen in ?
a- ewing's sarcoma
b- osteosarcoma
c- osteochondroma
d- osteoclastoma
answer is a .
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25 - the most common cause of chorea is ?
a- huntington' s disease
b- levodopa toxicity
c- alcoholism
d- rheumatic fever
answer is a . huntington's disease .
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26 - gait in parkinsonism is described as ?
a- ataxic gait
b- festinant gait
c- high stepping gait
d- dancing gait
answer is b .
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27 - mask like face is seen in ?
a- parkinsonism
b- disseminated sclerosis
c- after strokes
d- cerebellar disorders
answer is a .
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28 - the pathology in parkinsonism lies in ?
a- red nucleus
b- nigrostriatal tract
c- hypothalamus
d- hippocampus
answer is b .
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29 - mad cow's disease ( bovine spongiform encephalitis ) is found in cows , and the similar disease in man is known as ?
a- kuru
b- scrapie
c- cruetz feldt jacob disease
d- mink encephalitis
answer is c .
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30 - the chelating agent which causes ototoxicity ?
a- desferrioxamine
b- aminoglycosides
c- macrolides
d- loop diuretics
the answer is a . desferrioxamine .
the drugs which cause ototoxicity are :
1- aminoglycosides
2- antimalarials ( quinine , chloroquine )
3- anticancer drugs ( cisplatin , bleomycin )
4- chelating agent ( desferrioxamine )
5- loop diuretics
6- ear drops ( chloramphenicol , polymyxin , propylene glycol , acetic acid 2 % )
7- macrolides .
lets use a mnemonic here . CALM EARDROPS . OR . CLAMPE .
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31 - pain sensitive structure in brain ?
a- dura matter
b- pia matter
c- arachnoid matter
d- small pial vessel
answer is a . dura matter .
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32 - drug of choice in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia ?
answer : carbamazepine
carbamazepine is also the drug of choice in partial seizures . this is also the anticonvulsant drug which can be safely given in pregnancy .
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33 - anticonvulsant drug safe during pregnancy ?
a- carbamazepine
b- phenytoin
c- valproic acid
d- ethosuximide
answer is a . carbamazepine .
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34 - period paralysis may be associated with ?
a- hyperkalemia
b- hypokalemia
c- hyperthyroidism
d- all the above
answer is d . all the above .
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35 - sudden loss of vision in a patient with diabetic retinopathy is due to ?
a- cataract
b- glaucoma
c- vitreous hemorrhage
d- papilloedema
answer is c . vitreous hemorrhage .
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36 - pellagra like dermatitis is seen in ?
a- carcinoid syndrome
b- dermatomyositis
c- SLE
d- lymphoma
answer is a .
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37 - DPT vaccine is
ans: diptheria toxoid , killed pertussis vaccine , tetanus toxoid .
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38 - which of the following does not have herd immunity
a- measles
b- rubella
c- tetanus
d- polio
answer is c . tetanus .
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39 - oesophagus enters the diaphragm at the level of ?
a- T8
b- T10
c- T12
d- T6
answer is T10 .
VOA - T8 T10 T12 .
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40 - which of the following open into the right atrium?
a- SVC
b- IVC
c- coronary sinus
d- thebesian veins
e- only 1 , 2 and 3
f- all the above
answer is all the above.
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41 - vaccines which can be given at birth ?
a- hepatitis B
b- measles
c- polio
d- BCG
answer is a , c , d . measles is given at 9 months of age .
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42 - bones which form the floor of the orbit ?
a- zygomatic bone
b- maxilla
c- palatine bones
d- greater wing of sphenoid
a , b and c are the right answers . greater wing of sphenoid forms the lateral wall of the orbit .
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43 - posterior mediastinal masses
a- neurogenic tumor
b- bochdalek hernia
c- hiatus hernia
d- aortic arch aneurysm
answer is a , b , c . aortic arch aneurysm is a superior mediastinal mass .
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44 - jugular foramen structures passsing ?
a- 9 th cranial nerve
b- 10 th crania nerve
c- 11 th cranial nerve
d- 12 th cranial nerve
e- internal jugular vein
answer is all pass except the 12 th nerve , that is the hypoglossal nerve which passes thru the hypoglossal canal.
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45 - sago spleen is the deposition of amyloid in
a- splenic sinuses
b- splenic follicles
c- both
d- none
answer is b . sago spleen is the deposition of amyloid in the splenic follicles .
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46 - physaliferous cells are seen in ?
a- chordoma
b- osteochondroma
c- chondrosarcoma
d- osteosarcoma
answer is a .
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47 - curschmann spirals in sputum are seen in ?
a- bronchial asthma
b- bronchiectasis
c- chronic bronchitis
d- wegeners granulomatosis
answer is a . bronchial asthma .
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48 - causes of hypersensitivity pneumonitis is / are ?
a- silicosis
b- farmer's lung
c- anthracosis
d- asbestosis
answer is b . farmer's lung .
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49 - the most common cause of bronchiolitis is ?
a- respiratory syncytial virus .
b- adeno viurs
c- herpes virus
d- influenza virus
answer is a .
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50 - normal reid index is ?
answer is 0.44 .
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51 - precancerous lesion of gall bladder ?
a- porcelain gall bladder
b- mirizzi syndrome
c- cholesterosis
d- acalculous cholecystitis
answer is a . porcelain gall bladder .
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52 - cotton dust is associated with ?
a- byssinosis
b- asbestosis
c- bagassosis
d- silicosis
answer is a . byssinosis .
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53 - monday chest tightness is characteristic of
a- byssinosis
b- asbestosis
c- bagassosis
d- silicosis
answer is a . bysssinosis .
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54 - swan-ganz catheter is used to measure ?
a- right atrial flow
b- pulmonary capillary pressure
c- central venous pressure
d- right ventricular pressure
answer is b .
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55 - all are components of saint's triad except ?
a- renal stones
b- hiatus hernia
c- diverticulosis coli
d- gall stones
answer is a . renal stones . SAINT'S TRIAD - GDH .
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56 - cock's peculiar tumor is ?
answer is - infected sebaceous cyst .
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57 - commonest cancer in burn scar is ?
answer - squamous cell carcinoma.
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58 - true about marjolins ulcer ?
a- ulcer over scar
b- rapid growth
c- rodent ulcer
d- painful
answer is a . ulcer over scar .
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59 - ulcer that may develop in burn tissue ?
a- marjolins
b- rodent
c- melanoma
d- curlings
answer is a .
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60 - what is ranula ?
answer - retention cyst of the sublingual gland .
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61 - tinnels sign indicates ?
a- regeneration of nerves
b- atrophy of nerves
c- neuroma
d- injury of nerve
answer is a . regeneration of nerves .
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62 - an adult whose both lower limbs are charred along with genitalia has ___ % of burns ?
answer is 37 % .
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63 - gonadal sex of the fetus is determined by ?
a- secretion of testosterone
b- secretion of antimullerian hormones
c- sex determining region on the Y chromosome .
d- secretion of estrogen .
the answer is c .
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64 - most common type of urinary fistula ?
answer - vesicovaginal fistula .
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65 - In Bennet's Fracture, the following bone is injured
a. 1st metacarpal
b. 2nd metcarpal
c. 3rd metacarpal
d. 4th metacarpal
------------------------------------------------------------
The correct answer is A
A Bennett's fracture is an intra-articular fracture of the proximal end (base) of the thumb metacarpal. The resulting bone fragment is held by the intermetacarpal ligament. The base of the metacarpal is displaced laterally by the pull of the abductor pollicis longus.
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66 - What is the standard dose of PPD for Mantoux test?
a. 5 TU
b. 10TU
c. 15 TU
d. 20 TU
------------------------------------------------------------------
The correct answer is A
A standard dose of 5 Tuberculin units (0.1 mL)is injected intradermally (into the skin) and read 48 to 72 hours later. A person who has been exposed to the bacteria is expected to mount an immune response in the skin containing the bacterial proteins.
The reaction is read by measuring the diameter of induration (palpable raised hardened area) across the forearm (perpendicular to the long axis) in millimeters. No induration should be recorded as "0 mm". Erythema (redness) should not be measured.
If a person has had a history of a positive tuberculin skin test, another skin test is not needed.
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67 - bansdola is form of
a] hanging
b] strangulation
c] throttling
d] smoothering
answer is b . strangulation .
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68 - A 20 year old woman gives a history of sharp pain in the lower abdomen for 2-3 days every month approximately 2 weeks before the menses. The most probable etiology for her pain is:
1. Endometriosis.
2. Dysmenorrhea.
3. Pelvic tuberculosis.
4. Mittelschmerz.
Answer - 4. Mittelschmerz.
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69 - commonest hypospadias is ?
a- glandular
b- penile
c- scrotal
d- b and c
the answer is a . glandular . opening is in glans penis , proximal to the tip .
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70 - mebranous urethral rupture causes collection of blood in ?
a- deep perineal pouch
b- ischiorectal fossa
c- superficial inguinal region
d- pelvic diaphragm
answer is a . deep perineal pouch .
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71 - urinanalysis shows RBC casts , likely source is ?
a- kidney
b- ureter
c- bladder
d- urethra
answer is a . RBC casts are indicative of urethral injury . hyaline casts are physiologically normal . tom horsfall protein produced by the loop of henle is secreted as a hyaline cast .
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72 - presence of which of the following in the urine is diagnostic of glomerular injury ?
a- 20 % dysmorphic RBC s
b- bright red cells
c- 100 RBC per high power field
d- beta 2 micro globulin
answer is a . 20% dysmorphic RBC s .
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73 - which of the following are indicative of renal tubular disease ?
a- coarse granular casts
b- red cell casts
c- cystine oxalate cells
d- white cell casts
answer is a . coarse granular casts .
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74 - presence of which of the following correlates best with renal pathology ?
a- hyaline cast
b- coarse granular cast
c- broad cast
d- epithelial cast
answer is c . broad casts are characteristic of chronic renal failure .
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75 - which of the following is not seen in cushing's syndrome?
a- hypertension
b- hyperglycemia
c- hypokalemia
d- hypochloremia
e- metabolic alkalosis
f- frank psychosis
e- none
answer is e . because all the above features are seen in the cushing's syndrome .
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76 - the most common cause of cushing's syndrome ?
a- iatrogenic steroids
b- pituitary adenoma
c- adrenal adenoma
d- ectopic ACTH
answer is a . iatrogenic steroids .
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77 - commonest cause of VVF in india ?
a- obstetric causes
b- gynaec operations
c- bladder stone
d- carcinoma cervix
answer is a . obstetric causes .
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78 - Recommended vaccine for rabies?
A. DPT
B. MMR
C. BCG
D. HDCV
answer is d . human diploid cell vaccine . HDCV .
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79 - Complications in malaria are commonlu seen with ?
A. Plasmodium ovale
B. Plasmodium vivax
C. Plasmodium falciparum
D. Plasmodium malariae
answer is c . plasmodium falciparum .
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80 - Dengue fever is transmitted by:
A. Tiger mosquito
B. Jackal mosquito
C. Wolf mosquito
D. Lion mosquito
answer is a . aedes aegyti is otherwise called tiger mosquito .
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81 - Which of these is not an alternative name for Leptospirosis?
a- icterohemorrhagic fever
b- rice field fever
c- mud fever
d- cattle fever
the answer is d .
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82 - Incubation period for leptospirosis is:
a- 2 to 6 days
b- 2 to 16 days
c- 2 to 26 days
d- 2 to 36 days
answer is c . 2 to 26 days .
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83 - nagler's reaction is done to identify ?
answer : clostridium perfringens .
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84 - elek test is done to identify ?
answer : corynebacterium
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85 - the larva of dracunculus medinensis is called ?
answer : cyclops .
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
86 - tear drop sign is seen in x ray of ?
answer - blow out fracture of the orbit .
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
87 - floating water lily sign is seen in ?
answer - hydatid cyst of liver .
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
88 - thumb print sign is seen in ?
answers - ischemic colitis and acute epiglottitis .
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89 - visual reflexes are fully developed by how many years ?
answer is 1 year .
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90 - vision is completely developed by how many years ?
answer is 2 years .
----------------------------------------------------------------------------
91- cornea is fully developed by how many years ?
answer is 2 years .
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92 - knudson's hypothesis is related to ?
answer is retinoblastoma .
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93 - orange skin cornea results due to ?
answer is mustard gas .
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94 - keratoconjunctivitis sicca refers to ?
a- aqeous tear deficiency dry eye
b- mucin deficiency dry eye
c- lipid deficiency dry eye
d- all types of dry eye
answer is a .
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95 - drug not deposited in cornea ?
a- gold
b- chloroquine
c- amiodarone
d- antimony
answer is d . antimony .
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96 - dalrymple's sign of ocular graves' disease refers to ?
answer is retraction of the upper lid .
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97 - blow out fracture of the orbit is characterised by all except ?
a- tear drop sign
b- positive forced duction test
c- diplopia
d- exopthalmos
answer is d .
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98 - the important fatty acid present in breast milk , important for growth is ?
a- docosa hexanoic acid
b- palmitic acid
c- linoleic acid
d- linolenic acid
the answer is a .
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99 - severe diarrhea in HIV is commonly due to ?
a- rota virus
b- cryptospora
c- adeno virus
d- e coli
the answer is b .
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100 - which of the following reflex is not present at birth ?
a- ATNR
b- moro
c- symmetric TNR
d- crossed extensor response
the answer is c.symmetric tonic neck reflex is not present at birth .
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