801 - most common cause of peritonitis in adult male ?
a- duodenal ulcer perforation
b- enteric perforation
c- abdominal tuberculosis
d- perforated appendix
answer is d . perforated appendix .
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
802 - which structure crosses the esophagus at 25 cms from the incisor teeth ?
answer : arch of aorta and left bronchus ( 2nd constriction ) . at 15 cms cricopharyngeal constriction , at 40 cms the diaphragm constriction .
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
803 - agents used in daycare anaesthesia.
Manmohan---Midazolam
Singh---------Sevoflurane
Is-------------Isoflurane or Congener .
A--------------Alfentanyl
Prime---------PROPOFOL
Minister-------Mivacuriam .
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
804 - types of waves in EEG - BATS Drink Blood - mnemonic
pt awake & eyes Open—Beta
Pt awake but eyes Closed—Alpha
Stage I -----------------------Theta
Stage II-------------------------Spindle & k complex
Stage III & IV -------------------Delta
REM sleep --------------------------Beta .
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
805 - xylocaine and adrenaline combo avoided where n why ? Vasoconstrictive effects of xylocaine with epinephrine are helpful in providing hemostasis while suturing. However, may cause local ischemic necrosis in distal structures such as the digits, tip of nose, penis, ears .
---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
806 - inhalational anaesthesia causing BRONCHOCONSTRICTION...
answer : ENT
E-ETHER
N-NITROUS OXIDE
T-THIOPENTONE .
----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
807 - CEREALS are deficient in METHIONINE and PULSES are deficient in LYSINE .
guys just remember it as CMPLete FOOD!!!! .
808 – a dead body with suspected poisoning is having hypostasis of red brown or deep blue in colour . it is suggestive of poisoning due to ?
a- nitrates
b- carbonmonoxide
c- cyanides
d- barbiturates
answer is a . nitrates cause hypostasis( post mortem staining ) of either red brown or deep blue in colour .
normally in a patient with natural death , the lividity is at first bluish pink and later bluish purple . the colour imparted by various poisonings are :
1. nitrates – red brown or deep blue .
2. carbonmonoxide – cherry red .
3. opiates – black
4. cyanide – pink
5. chlorate – choclate brown
6. hydrogen sulphide – bluish green
7. phosphorous – dark brown
8. aniline – reddish brown.
Look at the painting done.
809 – drug of choice for the treatment of plague ?
answer : streptomycin.
810 – drug of choice for the chemoprophylaxis of plague ?
answer : tetracycline .
811 – vitamin E deficiency causes ?
a- ataxia
b- cholestasis
c- hyperkeratosis
d- pseudotumour cerebri
answer is a . ataxia .
812 – which muscle relaxant increases intracranial pressure ?
a- mivacurium
b- atracurium
c- suxamethonium
d- vecuronium
answer : c . succinyl choline is otherwise called suxamethonium . the effects of suxamethonium or succinyl choline are
1. increased intracranial pressure
2. increased intraocular pressure
3. increased intragastric pressure
813 – the topical use of the following local anaesthetic is not recommended ?
a- lignocaine
b- bupivacaine
c- cocaine
d- dibucaine
answer is b . bupivacaine . the local anaesthetics which shud not be used as topical agents are :
BAPU PRODHUNNE MEPU . bupivacaine , procaine and mepivacaine .
814 – in a chronic smoker , a highly malignant aggressive and metastatic lung carcinoma is ?
a- small cell carcinoma
b- squamous cell carcinoma
c- adenocarcinoma
d- large cell carcinoma
answer is a . though smoking is the risk factor for both squamous and small cell carcinoma ,the metastasis is more common in small cell (otherwise called oat cell carcinoma) rather than the squamous cell carcinoma .
other points tobe remembered :
1. most common histological variety of lung carcinoma to metastatize – small cell carcinoma(otherwise called oat cell carcinoma).
2. lung to lung metastasis is seen in – bronchoalveolar carcinoma ( a type of adenocarcinoma )
3. most common variety of lung carcinoma with gynaecomastia – large cell carcinoma .
4. most common variety of lung carcinoma with cushing’s syndrome – small cell carcinoma (otherwise called oat cell carcinoma).
5. most common variety of lung carcinoma with hypercalcemia due to increase in the parathyroid hormone levels – squamous cell carcinoma .
6. most common variety of lung carcinoma with thrombophlebitis – adenocarcinoma . ( large female pushing small ones and throwing up )
7. lung carcinoma with worst prognosis – small cell ca(otherwise called oat cell carcinoma) .
8. lung carcinoma which responds best to chemotherapy – small cell carcinoma(otherwise called oat cell carcinoma) .
9. lung carcinoma which responds best to radiotherapy – small cell carcinoma(otherwise called oat cell carcinoma) ( if it responds well to both y does it have a worst prognosis ? )
10. lung carcinoma with best prognosis – squamous cell carcinoma .
11. most common site for metastasis from carcinoma lung – adrenals .
12. most common endocrine gland with metastasis from the lung – adrenals .
13. variety of lung carcinoma which is central in location – small cell and squamous cell carcinomas .
14. variety of lung carcinoma which is peripheral in location – adenocarcinoma .
15. clubbing is least common with which type of lung carcinoma – small cell ( small kid – no clubs and pubs ) .
16. histological variety of lung carcinoma which cavitates – squamous cell carcinoma .
17. most common variety of lung carcinoma in the world – adenocarcinoma .
18. most common variety of lung carcinoma in India – squamous cell carcinoma .
19. most common variety of lung carcinoma affected young individuals – adenocarcinoma .
20. most commonly lung tumor associated with endocrine dysfunction – small cell carcinoma (otherwise called oat cell carcinoma)
815 – an unknown patient presents with pyrexia , constricted pupils , hypotension , cyanosis and stupor progressing to coma . poisoning is due to?
a- phenobarbitone
b- cannabis
c- datura
d- diphenhydramine
answer is a . barbiturates ( phenobarbitone ) and Organophosphorous compounds cause miosis ( pupil constriction ).
816 – two farmers were brought and they died soon . smell of bitter almonds was coming from their mouth . they died of which poison ?
a- organophosphorous
b- hydrogen cyanide
c- aconite
d- opium
answer is b . hydrogen cyanide or any cyanide .
----smell indicating poisoning :
1. bitter almonds smell – cyanide
2. fruity odour - ethyl alcohol
3. kerosene like odour – kerosene , organophosphates.
4. rotten eggs – hydrogen sulphide.
5. phenolic odour – carbolic acid.
6. burnt rope - cannabis .
7. garlic odour – arsenic poisoning .
8. fishy smell – zinc phosphide .
817 – on stomach washing which poisoning turns to black on exposure to silver nitrate ?
answer : celphos ( zinc phosphide ) .when this substance comes in contact with moisture it releases the phosphine gas which reacts with silver nitrate and gives black colour .
818 – on autopsy fine froth was found in the respiratory tract , nose and mouth . likely cause of death ?
a- drowning
b- hanging
c- strangulation
d- tooth paste poisoning
answer : drowning . the fine froth at the mouth and nose is pathognomonic of drowning . froth at mouth and in the respiratory tract is also found in the below poisons :
1. opiods
2. cocaine
3. barbiturates
4. organophosphorous compounds , but in all these cases the froth is neither so fine nor so copious and persistent and none of the typical signs of drowning are present .
819 – what is the investigation for blood grouping in old blood stain on cloth ?
answer : acid dilution test .
820 – colostrum has more of the following when compared with the breast milk ?
a- copper
b- calcium
c- iron
d- magnesium
answer : a – copper .
821 – commonest congenital defect of testes ?
a- cryptorchidism
b- agenesis
c- torsion
d- retractile testes
answer – a . crytorchidism .
822 – the audible range of human beings ?
answer : 20 to 20000 Hz .
823 – bowel can get strangulated in all of the following spaces except?
a- rectouterine pouch
b- paraduodenal recess
c- ileocolic recess
d- omental bursa
answer : a . rectouterine pouch .
824 – a patient has pituitary tumor and pheochromocytoma and a thyroid nodule . which carcinoma is most likely to occur in the thyroid ?
a- follicular
b- papillary
c- medullary
d- anaplastic
answer : c . medullary . the patient is suffering from MEN syndrome type 2 . ( pituitary tumor in the question will just distract u , that’s all .)
MEN type 1 ( wermer syndrome ) – pituitary adenoma ( or hyperplasia ) , parathyroid adenoma ( or hyperplasia ) , pancreatic islet cell neoplasm including gastrinoma , peptic ulcer due to increased gastrin production in zollinger Ellison syndrome .
MEN type 2a ( sipple syndrome ) – pheochromocytoma , pituitary adenoma and medullary thyroid carcinoma . hirschsprung’s disease and cutaneous lichen amyloidosis are other features .
MEN type 2b – pheochromocytoma , medullary thyroid carcinoma and neuromas ( mucocutaneous and gastrointestinal ) . marfanoid features also .
825 - The International Federation of Gynecology and Obstetrics (FIGO) staging system for carcinoma of corpus uteri is as follows:
· Stage IA - Tumor limited to endometrium
· Stage IB - Invasion to less than one half the myometrium
· Stage IC - Invasion to more than one half the myometrium
·
· Stage IIA - Endocervical glandular involvement only
· Stage IIB - Cervical stromal invasion
·
· Stage IIIA - Tumor invades serosa and/or adnexa and/or positive peritoneal cytology.
· Stage IIIB - Vaginal metastasis
· Stage IIIC - Metastases to pelvic and/or para-aortic lymph nodes
·
· Stage IVA - Tumor invasion of bladder and/or bowel mucosa
· Stage IVB - Distant metastases including intra-abdominal and/or inguinal lymph nodes.
826 – HLA associations of various syndromes –
HLA B 5 and B 51 – behcet’s syndrome
HLA B 27 – psoriatic arthritis , reiter’s disease and ankylosing spondylitis.
HLA DR 3 + DR2 + DR4 – diabetes mellitus type 1 .
HLA DR3 + HLA B 8 – myasthenia gravis .
HLA DR3 only – gluten sensitive enteropathy ( celiac disease ) .
HLA B 8 only – graves disease .
827 – p H of vagina in adult ?
answer : 4.5 .
828 – size of ovary above which it is considered malignant ?
answer : 8 cms .
829 – vanishing bile duct syndrome is seen in ?
answer : sarcoidosis .
830 – the life of preserved semen for artificial insemination is ?
answer : 10 years .
831 – lymph node metastasis is least commonly seen with ?
a- papillary ca . thyroid
b- medullary ca. thyroid
c- follicular ca. thyroid
d- anaplastic ca. thyroid
answer is c. follicular carcinoma .
832 – in pancreas - α cells secrete glucagon, β cells secrete insulin, δ cells secrete somatostatin and gastrin, and PP cells secrete pancreatic polypeptide.
833 – most commonly involved cranial nerve in sarcoidosis ?
answer : facial nerve ( seventh cranial nerve ).
834 – Causes of scarring ( cicatricial ) alopecia ?
a- various neoplasms and infections .
b- discoid lupus erythematosus .
c- tinea capitus / kerion
d- acne keloidalis
e- lichen planopilaris
f- folliculitis decalvans
g- pseudopelade of brocq
h- pseudofolliculitis barbae
i- dissecting cellulitis
j- scleroderma , morphea , amyloidosis , sarcoidosis and lymphoma may manifest as a scarring hair loss but most often with other skin findings .
835 - Hair follicles go through cyclic phases of activity and inactivity. Each cycle comprises of three phases:
1. ANAGEN : The growing phase, which lasts for 2-6yrs, average being 3 yrs.
2. CATAGEN : The transitional phase, which lasts for 1-2weeks.
3. TELOGEN : The resting phase, lasting for 3-4 months.
836 – which one of the following is not used in gullian-barre syndrome ?
a- corticosteroids
b- plasmapharesis
c- artificial ventilation
d- immunoglobulins
answer is a . steroids are of no use in GBS . they may prolong the recovery time .
837 - According to FAB classification , promyelocytic blood picture belongs to which type of AML ?
a- M0
b- M1
c- M2
d- M3
Answer is d . M3 - acute promyelocytic leukemia . the FAB classification of the ACUTE MYELOID LEUKEMIA is :
M0 – acute undifferentiated leukemia
M1 – acute myeloblastic leukemia
M2 – acute myeloblastic leukemia with differentiation.
M3 – acute promyelocytic leukemia
M4 – acute myelomonocytic leukemia
M5 – acute monoblastic leukemia
M6 – erythroleukemia
M7 – megakaryoblastic leukemia .
838 – the dosage of rifampicin in tuberculosis ?
answer : 8 – 12 mg/kg/bodyweight .
839 – retrobulbar optic neuritis with ethambutol is ?
a- dose related
b- not related to the dose
c- related to the duration of the treatment
d- none of the above.
Answer is a . dose related .
840 – while treating a TB patient with epilepsy which of the following is avoided ?
a- rifampicin
b- pyrazinamide
c- cycloserine
d- PAS
Answer is c . cycloserine . it can induce a variety of central nervous system dysfunctions and psychotic reactions .
841 – potassium supplements shud be given when the patient is on treatment with ?
answer : thiazide diuretics . ( these are also the diuretics effective in diabetes insipidus ) .
842 – Treponema pallidum – produces ?
a- exotoxin
b- endotoxin
c- enterotoxin
d- erythrogenic toxin
e- none of the above
answer is e . none of the above.
843 – rabies virus is rapidly destroyed by ?
a- ultraviolet radiation
b- ether
c- phenol
d- sulphadiazine
answer is a . UV radiation .
844 – which of the following is non-pathogenic ?
a- treponema pallidum
b- treponema cerateum
c- treponema pertenue
d- treponema endemecium
e- treponema denticole
answer is e . treponema denticole .
845 – the usual portal of entry for polio virus is believed to be through ?
a- alimentary tract
b- nasal mucosa
c- both
d- none
answer is a . alimentary tract .
846 – what is social obstetrics ?
answer : study of interrelation between environment and human reproduction .
847 – sensations of crude touch are carried by ?
answer : ventral spinothalamic tract .
848 – all of the following are veneral diseases except ?
a- gonorrhea
b- lipschultz ulcer
c- chancroid
d- yaws
e- granuloma inguinale
answer is e . granuloma inguinale .
849 – convulsive episodes occur when there is a severe deficiency of ?
a- riboflavin
b- thiamine
c- pyridoxine
d- folic acid
answer is c . pyridoxine .
850 – which one of the following drug is to be avoided in a patient of diabetes mellitus with hypertension ?
a- nifedipine
b- methyldopa
c- captopril
d- propranolol
answer is d . propranolol . beta blockers are to be avoided in all the following conditions :
1. congestive cardiac failure
2. bronchial asthma
3. diabetes ( on hypoglycemic therapy )
4. 2nd or 3rd degree block
5. MAO inhibitor administration
6. COPD
7. sick sinus syndrome
851 – if a biochemical test gives the same reading for a sample on repeated testing , it is inferred that the measurement is ?
a- precise
b- accurate
c- specific
d- sensitive
answer is a . precise .
852 – the drug of choice for chemoprophylaxis in contacts of a patient of pneumonic plague ?
answer : tetracycline .
853 – the active immunity offered by tetanus toxoid is effective in nearly how much percentage of patients ?
a- 25 %
b- 50 %
c- 75 %
d- 100 % of patients
answer is d . hundred % of patients .
854 – the visual acuity used as a cut off for differentiating “ normal ” from “ abnormal “ children in the school vision screening programme in India is ?
answer : 6/9 .
855 – in community needs assessment approach as part of the reproductive and child health programme , the targets for various health activities are set at the level of ?
a- community
b- sub-centre
c- primary health centre
d- district
answer is d . district .
856 – a 46 year old female presented at the eye OPD in a hospital . her vision in the right eye was 6/60 and in the left eye 3/60 . under the national programme for control of blindness ,she will be classified as ?
a- low vision
b- socially blind
c- economically blind
d- normal vision
answer is a . low vision . the national programme for control of blindness in India defines blindness in the following manner :
1. vision less than 6/18 to 6/60 in the better eye – low vision .
2. vision less than 6/60 to 3/60 in the better eye – economically blind
3. vision less than 3/60 in the better eye – socially blind .
857 – a randomized control trial comparing the efficacy of two drugs showed a difference between the two with a p value of less than 0.005 . in reality , however the two drugs do not differ . this therefore is an example of ?
a- type one error ( alpha error )
b- type two error ( beta error )
c- I alpha
d- I beta
Answer is a . type one or alpha error . dolo and febrex show type 1 error .
858 – the commonest cause of maternal mortality in india ?
answer : hemorrhage .
859 – as per WHO guidelines , iodine deficiency disorders are endemic in a community if the prevalence of goiter in school age children is more than ?
answer : 5 % .
860 – all of the following are true for occupational lead poisoning except ?
a- inhalation is the most common mode of absorption .
b- lead in blood and urine provides quantitative indicators of exposure
c- average blood is more important than number of subjects with blood levels above threshold .
d- basophilic stippling is a sensitive parameter of hematological response .
answer is c . in case of lead the blood level of the lead is not important but the number of individuals affected is more important .
861 – what is the difference between an endemic , epidemic and pandemic ?
Endemic: a disease that exists permanently in a particular region or population. Malaria is a constant worry in parts of Africa.
Epidemic: An outbreak of disease that attacks many peoples at about the same time and may spread through one or several communities.
Pandemic: When an epidemic spreads throughout the world.
862 – day of appearing of rash after fever :
1st day – varicella ( rubella also ) – VERY
2nd day – scarlet fever - SICK
3rd day – small Pox - PEOPLE
4th day - measles - MUST
5th day – typhus - TAKE
6th day – dengue - DOUBLE
7th day - typhoid - TREATMENT .
863 – statin induced myopathy is not induced by which of the following drugs ?
a- nicotinic acid
b- enalapril
c- erythromycin
d- clofibrate
answer is enalapril . ENG College is the mnemonic for the drugs which increase the statin induced myopathy . the drugs are :
E – erythromycin
N – Nicotinic acid
G – gemfibrozil
C - cyclosporine and clofibrate .
864 – a person going to temple gets irresistible sense of ideas to abuse god , which cannot be resisted , likely diagnosis ?
a- OCD
b- Mania
c- Schizophrenia
d- Delusion
Answer is a . OCD .
865 – a man hits his neighbour , next day he feels that police are behind him and his brain is being controlled by radio waves by his neighbour .the probable diagnosis is ?
a- thought insertion
b- passivity feeling( robot )
c- delusion of persecution
d- OCD
Answer is c . delusion of persecution .
866 – condyloma lata is seen in?
a- congenital syphilis
b- primary syphilis
c- secondary syphilis
d- tertiary syphilis
answer is c .secondary syphilis .
867 – a lady while driving a car meets with an accident . she was admitted in an ICU for 6 months . after being discharged , she often gets up in night and feels terrified and has fear to sit in car again .the diagnosis is ?
a- Panic disorder
b- Phobia
c- Conversion disorder
d- Post traumatic stress disorder
Answer is d . post traumatic stress disorder .
868 – characteristic finding of schizoid personality is ?
a- emotional coldness
b- conversion disorder
c- not concerned with disease or anything
d- check details of all things
answer is a . emotional coldness .
869 – characteristic finding of subcortical dementia?
a- memory loss
b- aphasia
c- dyslexia
d- tactile agnosia
answer is a . memory loss .
870 - the double bubble sign on X ray is a feature of ?
a- oesophageal atresia
b- pyloric stenosis
c- duodenal atresia
d- colonic atresia
answer is c . duodenal atresia .
871 – lymphogranuloma venerum is caused by ?
answer : Chlamydia trachomatis .
872 – granuloma inguinale is caused by ?
answer : campylobacter granulomatis .
873 – which of the following is true regarding gastric emptying ?
a- decreased by CCK
b- decreased by gastrin
c- decreased by insulin
d- increased by insulin
answer is a . decreased by CCK . CCK , secretin and GIP -- these three decrease gastric emptying . only gastrin increases gastric emptying .
874 – tinea versicolor involves mainly ?
a- sebaceous glands
b- sweat glands
c- hair follicles
d- epidermis
e- dermis
answer is d . epidermis .
875 – a pathognomonic x ray sign of chronic pancreatitis ?
a- pancreatic calcification
b- widening of duodenal loop
c- cystic mass in left upper quadrant
d- sentinel loop
e- air under diaphragm
answer is a . pancreatic calcification.
876 – management of uterine prolapse?
1. pregnant woman – first trimester – pessary .
2. pregnant woman – second or third trimester – resolves spontaneously .
3. young women – sling operation , perineal exercise .
4. women less than 40 years of age with complete family , who want to retain their menstrual function – fothergill’s operation .
5. woman age more than 40 years who do not want to retain their menstrual function – vaginal hysterectomy with pelvic floor repair .
6. old women who cannot sustain major surgery – le forte’s operation .
877 – true about placenta accreta ?
a- seen in cesarean section
b- removal should be done under General anaesthesia in piece meal
c- chorionic villi invade cerosa
d- it is an etiological factor for amniotic fluid embolism
answer is a . option c controversy . placenta accreta – condition in which placenta is directly anchored to the myometrium without any intervening decidua .commonly associated with previously injured sites on uterus such as a) previous cesarean section b) dilatation and curettage operation c) myomectomy d) manual removal . also associated with placenta previa . absence of decidua basalis . absence of nitabuch’s fibrinoid layer .
removal of placenta accrete should never be done under general anaesthesia .
878 – menorrhagia is defined as blood loss per vagina more than ?
answer : 80 ml .
879 – transmission of herpes is maximum in ?
a- first trimester
b- second trimester
c- third trimester
d- during parturition
answer is d . during parturition .
880 – serum alpha fetoprotein level is elevated in ?
a- endodermal cell tumor
b- immature teratoma
c- dysgerminoma
d- choriocarcinoma
answer is a . endodemal cell tumor .
881 – best marker for neural tube defects ?
answer : acetyl choline esterase .
882 – Dental fluorosis occurs when the fluorine in the water level is about ?
answer : abone 1.5 mg/l .
normal range of fluorine in water – no ill effects – 0.5 to 0.8 mg/l .
level above which dental fluorosis occurs – above 1.5 mg/l .
level above which skeletal fluorosis occurs – 3-6 mg/l .
883 – kuppuswamy classification about socioeconomic status comprises all except ?
a- income
b- occupation
c- education
d- type of housing
answer is d . type of housing .
884 – one dietary cycle is commonly how many days ?
answer : 7 days .
885 – which one of the following intrauterine device has the highest expulsion rate ?
a- copper T
b- nova T
c- copper T 200
d- lippes loop
e- all
answer is d . lippes loop .
886 – the association between coronary artery disease and smoking was found to be :
CAD no CAD
Smokers ------------------------- 30(a) 20(b)
Non-smokers ------------------- 20 © 30(d)
The odds ratio is ?
Answer : odds ratio = ad/bc = 30 x 30 / 20 x 20 = 2 . 25 . so the odds ratio is 2.25 .
887 – reverse cold chain is used for ?
answer : transporting vaccines to lab to check its potency .
888 – height in cms minus 100 is _______ index of obesity ?
answer : broca’s index .
889 – body mass index ( BMI ) = weight in kgs / (height) square in meters .
890 – which of the following drug belongs to nucleotide analog ?
a- ritonavir
b- indinavir
c- tenofovir
d- nelfinavir
e- amprenavir
answer : c . tenofovir .
891 – which one of the following statement is false regarding case control study ?
a- the study proceeds backward from effect to cause .
b- relatively easy to carry out .
c- unsuitable for investigating rare diseases .
d- no attrition problems
answer is c . case control studies are useful for rare diseases .
examples of case control studies :
a- adenocarcinoma of vagina and effect of Diethyl stilbestrol in first trimester
b- OCP and thromboembolism
c- Thalidomide tragedy
advantages of case control studies :
a- easy , rapid and expensive to carry out .
b- no risk to subjects and risk factors can be identified .
c- no attrition problems
d- does not require follow up
e- suitable for rare diseases
f- requires few subjects
g- minimal ethical problems
h- allows the study of several different aetiological factors .
disadvantages of case control studies ;
a- problem of bias
b- selection of controls may be difficult
c- incidence cannot be measured
d- not suited for the evaluation of therapy
e- do not distinguish between causes and associated factor .
892 - sullivan’s index – expectation of life free of disability .
893 – rehabilitation – training and retraining of the individuals to the highest possible level of functional ability .
894 – disability – inability to carry out certain activities which is considered normal for his age and sex .
895 – impairment - any loss or abnormality or psychological , physiological or anatomical structure or function .
896 – handicapped – experiencing certain disadvantages in life and not able to discharge the obligations required of him and play the role expected by the society .
897 – obligate host means ?
a- the only host
b- in which the sexual cycle of the agent occurs
c- in which the asexual cycle of the agent occurs
d- a carrier in which the organism remains alive but does not undergo development .
answer is a . the only host .
898 – commonest cause of death in penetrating injury of the chest ?
answer : tracheo bronchial injury .
899 – insensible daily water loss is ?
answer : 800 to 1000 ml .
900 – critical pH in mendelson’s syndrome ?
answer : 2.5 . Mendelson's syndrome - Associated persons: Curtis Lester Mendelson -
Not commonly used term for bronchopulmonary diseases occurring with aspiration of gastric juice. Syndrome characterised by a bronchopulmonary reaction following aspiration of gastric contents during general anaesthesia due to abolition of the laryngeal reflexes. The main clinical features, which may become evident within two to five hours after anaesthesia, consist of cyanosis, dyspnoea, pulmonary wheeze, crepitant rales, bronchi, decreased arterial oxygen tension, and tachyardia. Pulmonary oedema can cause sudden death or death may occur later from pulmonary complications. It occurs predominantly in association with obstetric anaesthesia. critical pH in mendelson’s syndrome is 2.5 .Mendelson found this complication in 0,15 percent of 44.016 deliveries.
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