501 – the only naturally acting local anaesthetic ?
answer : cocaine .
502 – atracurium is eliminated from the body by?
Answer: hoffman degeneration , ester hydrolysis .
503 – the only local anaesthetic which has sympathomimetic properties ?
answer : cocaine .
504 – the only local anesthetic which causes vasoconstriction ?
answer : cocaine .
505 – which of the following inhalational anaesthetics is contraindicated while doing middle ear surgeries , when tympanic grafts are used ?
a- nitrous oxide
b- halothane
c- ether
d- isoflurane
answer is a . nitrous oxide . this gas is avoided in closed gas spaces : compliant space increase in volume as a bowel gas , pneumothorax , air embolism is at risk ( laparoscopy , posterior fossa craniotomy , increase in pressure in non compliant space as pneumoencepahlography , middle ear surgery)
506 - drugs which cross the placental barrier ?
answer : DCP ( district commissioner of police )
D- dicumerol , diazepam
C- corticosteroids
P- pethidine , phenytoin
507 - Mannitol:
a. is an alcohol
b. is poorly absorbed from the gut
c. is used in the treatment of cerebral oedema
d. is completely filtered at the renal glomeruli and not
reabsorbed from the renal tubule
e. increases urinary excretion of water, sodium and
chloride
508 - treatment of digoxin overdose includes the administration of all the following except?
a- potassium
b- phenytoin
c- lignocaine
d- beta blockers
e- hemodialysis
answer is e . B P L can be given in digoxin overdose . potassium shud not be given if there is A V block or hyperkalemia . hemodialysis has no role in digoxin overdose .
poisonings in which hemodialysis has no role ( non dialysible poisons )
1. benzodiazepines
2. organophosphorous compounds
3. kerosene
4. digoxin .
BOoKeD or BOKA.
509 – charcots triad include all of the following except ?
a- pain
b- jaundice
c- fever
d- vomiting
features of charcots triad are abdominal pain , high fever with rigors and jaundice .
510 – the treatment of choice for silent stones in gall bladder ?
a- observation
b- chenodeoxycholic acid
c- cholecystectomy
d- lithotripsy
answer is a . observation .
511 – the following conditions predispose to leukemias ?
a- bloom syndrome
b- downs syndrome
c- fanconi’s anemia
d- all the above
answer is d . all the above .
512 – in sickle cell anemia ?
answer: Hb S beta 6 glu-val .
513 – macrocytic anemia is seen in all except ?
a- pernicious anemia
b- latum infection
c- tropical sprue
d- copper deficiency
answer is d . copper deficiency causes a normocytic hypochromic picture .
the causes of macrocytic anemia are :
an EROTIC NIGHT watchman who works from 12 to 1 , took FOLIC ACID and damaged his LIVER and THYROID (HYPO).he LATER developed SPRUE .
1. EROTIC – orotic aciduria .
2. NIGHT - nitrous oxide inhalation
3. 12 - B 12 deficiency
4. 1 - B 1 deficiency
5. FOLIC ACID – folic acid deficiency
6. LIVER - liver disease
7. THYROID – hypothyroidism
8. LATER - latum infection ( diphyllobothrium )
9. SPRUE - tropical sprue.
514 – spur cell anemia is a feature of ?
answer : liver disease .
515 – drug of choice in zollinger Ellison syndrome
answer : omeprazole .
516 – Bernstein test is useful in the diagnosis of ?
answer : reflex oesophagitis .
517 – the most common hepatotropic virus progressing to chronicity is ?
anwer : hepatitis C.
518 – non parenteral hepatitis caused by which virus ?
answer : hepatitis E .
519 – the most common route of spread in hepatitis E ?
answer : feco oral route .
520 – which of the following hepatitis virus have significant perinatal transmission ?
answer : hepatitis B .
521 – which hepatitis is most dangerous in pregnancy ?
which hepatitis has the worst prognosis during pregnancy?
Which is the most common type of hepatitis responsible for epidemics in India ?
What is the cause of non-parenteral hepatitis ?
Answer for all: hepatitis E .
522 – during an epidemic of hepatitis E , the fatality is most common in ?
answer : pregnant women .
523 – the most common cause of hepatocelluar carcinoma in India ?
a- hepatitis B
b- hepatitis A
c- non A non B hepatitis
d- alcoholic cirrhosis
anwer is a .
524 - normal portal vein pressure ? ( comedk 2008 )
answer : 5 to 10 mm of Hg / or / 10 to 15 cms of saline .
525 – hepatitis B – hepadna virus
hepatitis C – flavi virus
hepatitis E – calici virus
hepatitis A – enterovirus
hepatitis D –
526 – hepatitis C virus is associated with ?
a- anti-LKM antibodies
b- cryoglobulinemia
c- scleroderma
d- polyarteritis nodosa
answer is a . anti liver and kidney microsome antibodies . cryoglobulinemia is also sometimes associated with hepatitis C . PAN is associated with hepatitis b .
other conditions associated with anti LKM antibodies are :
1. type 2 autoimmune hepatitis ( LKM type 1)
2. drug induced hepatitis ( LKM type 2 )
3. chronic hepatitis D ( LKM type 3 )
527 – mondor’s disease – thrombophlebitis of superficial veins of breast.
528 – most common cause of thyroiditis ?
answer : hashimoto’s thyroiditis
529 – thyroglossal cyst may occasionally give rise to which thyroid carcinoma ?
answer : papillary carcinoma of thyroid .
530 – barrett’s oesophagitis progresses to the development of which carcinoma?
Answer: adenocarcinoma .
531 – trichobezoar ?
hair ball in the stomach of a psychiatric patient . bezoars are concentrations of undigestible matter that accumulate in the stomach . phytobezoars are accumulation of vegetative matter in the stomach .
532 – what is graham cole test ?
answer : oral cholecystography.
533 – which is the most common malignancy after cholecystectomy ?
answer: carcinoma stomach .
534 – inverted 3 sign or the reversed 3 sign of frostberg is seen in ?
answer: carcinoma head of pancreas.
535 – peritoneal mice – appendices epiploicae .
536 – ormond’s disease – idiopathic retroperitoneal fibrosis .
537 – retractile mesentertitis may be seen in ?
answer: ormond’s disease .
538 – spigelian hernia ?
answer : subumbilical region , lateral border of rectus abdominis ( linea semilunaris )
539 – triad of renal colic , swelling in the loin which disappears after passing urine is called ?
answer: dietel’s crisis .
540 – the most common neoplasm of the kidney ?
answer : renal cell carcinoma .
541 – worst position for scars ?
answer: sternum .
542 – most common complication after splenectomy?
a- chest infection
b- hematemesis
c- subphrenic collection
d- acute dialation of stomach
answer is a . chest infection .
543 – most common complication after splenectomy?
a- hematemesis
b- left lower lobe atelectasis
c- peritoneal effusion
d- acute dialation of stomach
answer is b . left lower lobe atelectasis .
544 – most common infection after splenectomy?
Answer: STREPTOCOCCUS PNEUMONIAE .
545 – splenectomy is most useful in ?
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- splenic abscess
c- myelofibrosis
d- sickle cell anemia
answer: a . hereditary spherocytosis .
546 – splenectomy not done in ?
a- hereditary spherocytosis
b- myelofibrosis
c- splenic abscess
d- sickle cell anemia
answer is d . actually splenectomy is done in all the above mentioned conditions but least indicted and least useful in sickle cell anemia .
547 – most common indication for splenectomy ?
answer: splenic rupture. KEHR’S sign is pain over left shoulder seen in splenic rupture .
548 – most common indication for splenectomy in elective setting?
Answer : ITP ( idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura .)
549 – commonest site of accessory spleen ?
answer : hilum of spleen .
550 – spleniculi are seen in ?
a- colon
b- hilum
c- liver
d- lungs
answer is b . hilum of spleen . spleniculi are accessory spleens .
551 – treatment of choice for medullary carcinoma of thyroid ?
answer : total thyroidectomy.
552 – sentinel pile indicates ?
a- anal fissure
b- carcinoma rectum
c- internal hemorrhoids
d- perianal fistula
answer is a . anal fissure .
553 – sitz bath ?
answer: patient sits in a basin containing warm antiseptic lotion .
554 –delorme’s procedure is used for ?
answer : rectal prolapse .
555 – marion’s disease is due to ?
answer : muscular hypertrophy of the internal sphincter of urinary bladder .
556 – most appropriate for the diagnosis of CBD stones ?
a- ERCP
b- OCG
c- Ultrasonography
d- IV cholangiography
Answer is a .
557 – H pylori causes ?
a- type A gastritis
b- type B gastritis
c- autoimmune
d- allergic gastritis
answer is b . type B gastritis .
558 – true about trichobezoars are all except ?
a- it is a psychiatric manifestation
b- ball of hair in the stomach
c- caused by trichuris
d- pulling the hair and sucking of hair is seen
answer is c .
559 – duodenal blow out is ?
a- perforation of duodenal ulcer
b- iatrogenic
c- complication of partial gastrectomy
d- due to trauma
answer is c . complication of partial gastrectomy.
560 – frost bite is treated by?
a- rapid rewarming
b- slow rewarming
c- IV pentoxyphylline
d- Amputation
Answer is b . slow rewarming .
561 – lentigo maligna is most commonly seen in ?
answer : face .
562 – millroys disease ?
answer: congenital lymphedema ( lymphedema which is familial )
563 – malignant cell in hodgkin’s lymphoma ?
answer : reed Sternberg cells .
564 – radiographic finding of floating teeth are seen in ?
answer : histiocytosis X .
565 – sistrunk’s operation is done in ?
a- thyroglossal cyst
b- thyroglossal fistula
c- parotid tumor
d- branchial fistula
answer is both a and b .
566 – adson’s test is positive in ?
answer : cervical rib .
567 – earliest tumor to appear after birth ?
answer : cystic hygroma .
568 – trotter’s triad is seen in ?
answer : nasopharyngeal carcinoma .
569 – thyroglossal fistula develops due to ?
a- developmental anamoly
b- injury
c- incomplete removal of thyroglossal cyst
d- inflammatory disorder
answer is c .
570 – cystic hygroma ?
a- shud be left alone
b- excision of cyst at an early age
c- spontaneous regression
d- manifests in the 2nd and 3rd decade
answer is b . but spontaneous regression sometimes does occur in cystic hygroma .
571 – most commonl anterior mediastinum tumor ?
answer : thymoma .
572 – meig’s syndrome consists all of the follwing except ?
a- ascites
b- hydrothorax
c- benign ovarian tumor
d- malignant ovarian tumor
answer is d . fibroma is associated with meig’s syndrome .
573 – HLA important in IDDM ?
a- HLA – A 3
b- HLA – B 27
c- HLA – B 1
d- HLA – DRW3 and DRW4
Answer is d .
574 – obesity is not seen in ?
a- pheochromocytoma
b- hypothyroidism
c- cushing’s syndrome
d- hypogonadism
answer is a .
575 – best indication of testicular biopsy in male ?
a- azospermia
b- oligospermia
c- necrospermia
d- polyspermia
answer is a . azospermia .
576 – familial polyostosis , precocious puberty and pigmentation , the diagnosis is ?
answer : mc cune Albright syndrome.
577 – the most common cause of thyrotoxicosis is ?
a- grave’s disease
b- follicular adenoma
c- multinodular adenoma
d- well differentiated
answer is a . grave’s disease .
578 – addisons disease is characterized by ?
a- hypoglycemia
b- hypokalemia
c- hypernatremia
d- hypertension
answer is a . other other three are cushing’s syndrome features . features of cushing’ s syndrome are hyperglycemia , hypertension , hypokalemia , hyperchloremia , metabolic alkalosis and frank psychosis .
579 – most common tumor of pituitary ?
answer : prolactinoma .
580 – in testicular feminization syndrome , false statement ?
a- sexual orientation is female
b- karyotype 46 XY
c- testosterone levels are not detectable in the serum
d- at puberty the oestrogen levels are high
e- the usual presentation in childhood is with inguinal hernia .
answer is c .
581 – short stature with widely spread nipples and webbed neck is seen in ?
answer – turners syndrome .
582 – dawn phenomenon refers to?
Answer : early morning hyperglycemia .
583 – drug of choice in acute migraine ?
a- ergotamine
b- pizotifen
c- methysergide
d- clonidine
answer is a .
584 – the most common form of dementia ?
answer : alzheimer’s disease.
585 – chromosomal anamoly associated with alzheimer’s disease ?
answer- trisomy 21 ( down’s syndrome .)
586 – best diagnostic aid to myasthenia gravis ?
answer: response to IV edrophonium .
587 – myasthenia gravis is frequently associated with ?
a- thymoma
b- sarcoidosis
c- meig’s syndrome
d- lymphoma
answer is a .
588 – lesions of alzheimer’s disease are commonest at ?
answer : nucleus of meynerts.
589 – fragile X syndrome is characterized by all of the following except ?
a- large face
b- large ears
c- large testis
d- large nose
answer is d .
590 – which of the following is not seen in turner’s syndrome ?
a- short stature
b- widely spaced nipple
c- webbed neck
d- mental retardation
answer is d .
591 – type of graft best suited for renal transplantation ?
a- autograft
b- allograft
c- xenograft
d- isograft
answer is d . isograft ( taking the graft from somebody who closely resembles with ur genetic state ( genetically identical ).
Allograft – graft from other person of the same species .
Xenograft – graft from another animal of another species .
592 – tumor marker relevant with ovarian carcinoma ?
a- CA 125
b- CA 19.9
c- CD-30
d- CD-25
Answer is a .
593 – RNA fragments are sequenced by?
Answer: northern blot .
594 – gluten sensitive enteropathy is most strongly associated with ?
answer : HLA DQ2
595 – in bishop score are all included except ?
a- effacement of cervix
b- dilatation of cervix
c- station of head
d- interspinal diameter
answer is d .
596 – heart rate is physiologically maximum in ?
a- fetus
b- newborn
c- adults
d- old age
answer is a .
597 – commonest site for fertilization ?
a- ampulla
b- isthmic
c- infundibulum
d- interstitial
answer is a .
598 – urine formation in intrauterine life starts at ?
a- 3 months
b- 4 months
c- 5 months
d- 6 months
answer is b .
599 – ligamentum teres is formed by?
Answer: obliteration of umbilical vein
600 – commonest presentation ?
a- breech
b- shoulder
c- vertex
d- brow
answer is c .
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