Friday, March 14, 2008

81 - AP PG paper 2008 - all questions with answers - andhra pradesh medical post graduation entrance paper 2008

1. what is the action of anterior fibres of deltoid ? c

a. medial rotation
b. lateral rotation
c. flexion and medial rotation
d. extension and lateral rotation

2. which is not lined by stratified nonkeratinised squamaous epithelium ? d

a. hypopharynx and laryngopharynx
b. oesophagus
c. cornea
d. Tympanic membrane

3. which of the following is not supplied by posterior division of obturator nerve ? b

a. obturator externus
b. obturator internus
c. Adductor magnus

4. which of the following is true about azygous vein course ? c

a. superior venecava
b. posteriorly to inferior venecava
c. anterior lumbar vein

5. Which of the following is not present at birth ? a

a. mastoid tip
b. mastoid antrum
c. ethmoidal labrynth
d. endolymphatic sinus

answer is a . to see the reference page click here .

6. Which is the critical temperature of nitrous oxide ? d

a. -118 degree
b. - 88
c. 26
d. 36.5

check out this page about nitrous oxide to confirm the answer .

7. Which of the following is not an amino steroid derivative ? a

a. alcurioum
b. vecuronium
c. pancuronium
d. pipecuronium

8. what is the time gap given in train of four ? ans : 10 seconds

a. 10 sec
b. 20 sec
c. 40 sec
d. 60 sec
We investigated whether the response to a single twitch (ST) stimulus or the first response (T1) toa train-of-four (TOF; 4 stimuli at 2 Hz) stimulus followinga stimulus interval of 10 s (i.e., the time between two consecutive ST or TOF stimuli) is influenced by the preceding stimulus in the presence of a stable 50% neuromuscular block. In addition, we determined whether ST and TOF stimulation yield different results under these circumstances. Methods.Twitch forces were measured in both tibialis anterior muscles of six cats. In the presence of a stable 50% neuromuscular block the stimulation pattern (ST or TOF) or stimulus interval (3.3, 10 or 30 s) was varied every 30min. A linear mixed model was used for statistical analysis. Results.ST forces with a stimulus interval of 3.3 s were 10.3%(95% CI: 7.3–13.3%) smaller than those with a stimulus interval of 10 s. For T1 forces this effect was 15.2% (95% CI: 12–18.4%). There was no significant difference between twitch forces with stimulus intervals of 30 and 10 s. For a stimulus interval of 3.3 s the ST forces exceeded the T1 forces by 7.6% (95% CI: 4.4–10.8%); no significant differences were found between the ST and T1 forces for stimulus intervals of 10 and 30 s. Conclusions.The ST or T1force during stimulation with a stimulus interval of 10 s or more during a stable 50% neuromuscular block in the tibialis anterior muscle of the cat is not affected by the preceding stimulus. In addition, ST and T1 forces do not differ when employing a stimulus interval of 10 s or more under these circumstances. Our results thus indicate that the known differences between ST and T1 forces after a bolus injection of a muscle relaxant can not be explained by differences in acetylcholine release when the stimulus interval exceeds10 s.

Neuromuscular monitoring - mechanomyography - single twitch - train-of-four - neuromuscular block


9. which of the following presents as follicular pink scaly rash of chronic type with palmoplantar involvement ? d

a. pitryiasia rosea
b. pitryiasis alba
c. pitryrias capitis
d. pitryisas rubra pilaris

10. Which of the following presents as chronic winter rash in woman ? a

a. asteatotic eczema
b. statis eczema
c. atopic
d. nummular

11. Which of the following presents as keratin plug without opening ? d

a. comedom
b. nodule
c. cyst
d. milia

12. which of the following is not a type of lesion in leprosy? b

a. hypopigmented patch
b. vesicle
c. erytrhrodermic
d. raised plaque

13. which of the following is not the cause of charcots joint ? d

a. leprosy
b. syringomyelia
c. diabetes mellitus
d. psoriasis

14. Which of the following is called catamite ? b

a. Passive victim of sodomy anybody
b. passive victim of sodomy young boy

15. what is transvestism ? a ( please read Narayana reddy the definition )

a. Wearing clothes of opposite sex to be identified as of opposite sex
b. wearing clothes of opposite sex for sexual gratification

16. Contributory negligence is a defense in ? c

a. civil negligence
b. criminal negligence
c. ethical negligence

17. Which of the following is true about pneumothorax except? c

a. radiolucency of underlying lung with no bronhial markings
b. shift of lung to hilum
c. full radio opacity of underlying lung
d. Moderate ventilation of underlying lung

18. Which of the following is not true about MRI ? c

a. MRI is useful in locating small lesions
b. CT is better than MRI in bone lesions
c. MRI is better for calcified lesions

19. 1 Curie equals to ? d ( 1 giga is 1 billion )

a. 3.7 M becqueral
b. 37 M
c. 3.7 G b
d. 37 Gb
What units are used for measuring radioactivity?

Radioactivity or the strength of radioactive source is measured in units of becquerel (Bq).

1 Bq = 1 event of radiation emission per second.

One becquerel is an extremely small amount of radioactivity. Commonly used multiples of the Bq unit are kBq (kilobecquerel), MBq (megabecquerel), and GBq (gigabecquerel).

1 kBq = 1000 Bq, 1 MBq = 1000 kBq, 1 GBq = 1000 MBq.

An old and still popular unit of measuring radioactivity is the curie (Ci).

1 Ci = 37 GBq = 37000 MBq.

One curie is a large amount of radioactivity. Commonly used subunits are mCi (millicurie), µCi (microcurie), nCi (nanocurie), and pCi (picocurie).

1 Ci = 1000 mCi; 1 mCi = 1000 µCi; 1 µCi = 1000 nCi; 1 nCi = 1000 pCi.

Another useful conversion formula is:

1 Bq = 27 pCi.

Becquerel (Bq) or Curie (Ci) is a measure of the rate (not energy) of radiation emission from a source.

to check out the page where this information was taken from , click here .

20. Biological half life of radioactive substance in organ depends upon ? d

a. initial radioactivity
b. substance half life
c. effective half life
d. metabolism in the organ

check out the reference for the above answer , click here .

21. which of the following is beneficial in Electroconvulsive therapy ? c

a. Bilateral induction of symmetrical generalised seizures
b. Induction of memory disturbances
c. use of anaesthetic agents
d. pulse wave therapy

22. when extracellular potassium is increased from 4 meq to 10 meq what will happen ? a

a. resting membrane potential becomes more negative
b. increase in conductance of sodium
c. increase in conductions of potassium
d. Na K ATpase will be stopped

23। 10 percent dextrose is ? d is the answer .

a. hypotonic
b. isotonic
c. normotonic
d. hypertonic
Solution Osmolality Usage and Limitations D5W - 5% Dextrose in water isotonic (252 mOsm/L) provides free water (hypotonic) to the extracellular and intracellular spaces, as the dextrose is quickly metabolized; promotes renal elimination of solutes; treats hypernatremia; does not provide electrolytes; one liter is 170 calories D10W - 10% Dextrose in water hypertonic (505 mOsm/L) osmotic diuretic; provides free water and 340 calories per liter, but no electrolytes; hypertonic solutions may irritate the veins D20W - 20% Dextrose in water hypertonic (1011 mOsm/L) osmotic diuretic; provides calories, but no electrolytes; solutions containing more than 10% dextrose must be infused in a central line D50W - 50% Dextrose in water hypertonic (1700 mOsm/L) osmotic diuretic; provides calories, but no electrolytes D5 1/4 NS - 5% Dextrose & 0.2NaCl isotonic (320 mOsm/L) for daily maintenance of body fluids when Cl and Na are required; treats hypernatremia; replaces hypotonic losses; 170 calories pre liter D5 1/2 NS - 5% Dextrose & 0.45NaCl hypertonic (406 mOsm/L) to promote renal function and excretion; basically the same as .45NS except provides 170 calories per liter D5NS - 5% Dextrose & 0.9NaCl hypertonic (559 mOsm/L) to treat fluid volume deficit; for daily maintenance of body fluids and nutrition; basically the same as NS, except provides 170 calories per liter D10NS - 10% Dextrose & 0.9NaCl hypertonic (812 mOsm/L) to replace calories, fluid, sodium and chloride check out this file in pdf format with tables to see for urself . click here to view the file .

24. What is electromyogram ? b

a. stimulation of muscle through nerve
b. stimulation of muscle without nerve
c. direct recording of electrical activity from muscle
d. recording motor nerve conduction

25. guardian of genome ? a

a. p53
b. bcl2

26. Gene is ? a

a. codon
b. anticodon
c. cistron
d. okazaki fragment

27. which of the following is not the presentation of obstructive sleep apnea ? c

a. day time somnlence
b. nocturia
c. impotence
d. resp insufficiency

28. Primozide belongs to ? d

a. thioxanthines
b. phenothiazines
c. buprenorhine group
d. diphenyl.... group

29. which of the following drug is contraindicated in pregnancy and lactation ? Metronidazole is contraindicated only in 1st trimester ( I agree )

a. mebendazole
b. albendazole
c. metronidazole

30 which drug caused gynaecomazia ? a

a. ketoconazole
b. fluconazole

31. which of the following untrue about wilson disease? a

a. increased ceruloplasmin

32. which of the following condition s4 is absent ? b

a. pulmonic stenosis
b. mitral stenois
c. systemic hypertension
d. pulm hypertension

33. In which of the following conditions pulsus paradoxus absent in cardiac tamponade ? d

a. obesity
b. pregancy
c. MS
d. AR

34. Sternocleidomastoid atrophy seen in ? a

a. spinal muscular atrophy
b. olivopontocerebellar atrophy
c. muscular dystrophy
d. duchennes

35. Krukenberg spindle present in ? a
a. corneal endolethium
b. retina
c. lens

36. photopsia seen in ? a

a. choroiditis

37. Laser trabeluoplasty done in ? a

a. open angle gluacoma
b. closed angle
c. angle closure

38. power of Intra ocular lens is determined by ? a ( Keratometry)

a. keratometry
b. retinoscopy
c. ophthalmoscopy
d. gonioscopy

39. Brown reflex deposition seen in mercury poisoning ? c

a. anterior cornea
b. posteror cornea
c. anterior lens
d. posterior lens

40. Precocious puberty caused by all except ?a

a. testicular feminisation
b. albrights
c. testicular tumours
d. brain tumours

41. rosette cataract seen in ? a

a. ocular trauma
b. diabetes
c. wilsons

42. which of the following disease has consistent symptoms of tinittus ? a

a. menieres disease

43. which of the following is not related to lateral sinus thrombosis ? c

a. greisinger sign
b. tobey ayer test
c. gradenigo syndrome

44. recently found association of bells palsy ? a

a. HSV
b. herpes zoster
c. EBC
d. varicella

45.sodium chromoglygate used in ? b

a. phlyctenular
b. vernal

46. most common site of choleasatoma ? a

a. prussaks space
b. hypotympanum

47. quinsy related to ? b

a. paratonsillar fossa
b. peritonsillar
c. crypta magna

48. external carotid artery is ligated at ? a

a. above the origin of sup thyroid artery
b. below the origin of sup thyroid artery
c. at the bificuration of common carotid artery
d. at the origin of ascending palatine artery

49. A boy presents with unilater purulent foetid discharge from nose? a

a. foreign body
b. polyp

50. which is false about natal teeth ? d

a. always present at birth
b. 2 incisors of mandibular teeth
c. severe root resorbtion problems associated
d. always removed

i think the odds are in favour of d , because the incidence of natal teeth is 1 in 2000 and moreover many problems are associated with the natal teeth such as injury to the mother's breast during suckling and danger of aspiration of teeth . check out this information taken from a site to support my answer. to view the page click here .

natal teeth

Natal teeth are teeth present at birth. This happens in only about 1 in 2,000 newborns. They are usually present as a pair of lower central incisors. These teeth almost always lack a true root, and are rather loosely attached to the gum. Natal teeth can be extra deciduous (baby) teeth, in which case they will be replaced by normal deciduous teeth later in infancy, or they may actually be normal deciduous teeth that erupted very early. These teeth can make nursing uncomfortable for both baby and mother, and very loose natal teeth pose some risk of detachment and aspiration into the baby's lungs, so removal is a consideration. Natal teeth are associated with several medical conditions, including cleft palate and other congenital anomalies including pierre robin syndrome .

check out this information taken from a site to support my answer. to view the page click here .

51. what is the most common organism causing epidural abscess ? a

a. staph aureus
b. strep
c. bacteriods
d. H .influenza

52. what is the deformity seen in fixed adduction of hip ? a

a. apparent shortening
b. apparent lenthening
c. true shortening
d. true lenghthening

check out the reference above to say that the answer is apparent shortening . click on the image for a larger image view .

53. 10 year old boy presents with pain in the hip with flexion adduction problem , cause ? a

a. perthes
b. transcervical fracture of neck
c. TB hip
d. Transient hip

54. Which is not secreted by stomach ? a

a. lipase
b. pepsinogen
c. HCl
d. acid

55. which part of brain most often contused in RTA ? b

a. frontal
b. parietal
c. occipital
d. temporal

56. which of the following is not a barrier method ? a
a. centchroman
b. today
c. barrier

57. which of the following associated with endometrial cancer ? a

a. enteropathica haemorrhagica
b. dysgermniona
c. fibroid

58. which is not true about CTEV ? d

a. Equinus of talus
b. varus of heel
c. shortened tendo acchiles
d. Triple arthrodesis is optimal treatment

59. Most common cause of fracture of neck of talus ? c ( due to forced dorsiflexion )

a. fall from height
b. plantar flexion
c. dorsi flexion
d. inversion

60. which is false about turners syndrome ? a

a. Mental retardation
b. digital deformities
c. web neck
d. short stature

61. false about klinefelters ? a

a. most common syndrome of sex gene involvement
b. most common cause of hypogonadic failure is males
c. mental retardation common
d. serum FSH levels are consistently high

62. Most common cause of perisent diarrhae in children ? a

a. rota virus
b. E coli

63. In which of the following conditions oxygen delivery is least to muscles ? c
a. Person inhaling 100 percent oxygent at the top of mount everest
b. Marathon runner at sea level
c. person with carbon monoxide poisoning
d. none of the above ( this option none of the above was also there )

64. Hb o2 dissociation curve to left by ? a

a. increase pH

65. Blood flow to brain is not influenced by ? b

a. paco2
b. po2
c. cerebral circulation
d. systemic circulation

66. which of the following is least in proteing quality ? ?

a. gelatin
b. lactalbumin
d. cashewnut protein

67. which of the following is K channelopathy ? a

a. episodic ataxia 1
b. familial hemiplegic migraine
c. myotonia
d. paramyotonia

68.which of the following is not true about berry aneurysms ? b

a. rupture leading to SAH
b. most common in post circulation

69. Un true about aneurysm in brain ? b >>> a

a. SAH
b. Intraventricular haemorrhage
c. papilledema
d. vasospasm

70. which is most commonly deficient in TPN ? a

a. zinc
b. chromium

71. what type of rbc seen in chronic renal failure ? c

a. microcytic
b. macrocytic
c. normocytic

72. most common cause of thyrotoxicosis in childhood? c

a. toxic nodular goiture
b. toxic adenoma
c. graves
d. thryotoxicosis factitia

73. Least plasma halflife ? ? norepinephrine c

a. dehydroepiandrostendione
b. aldosterone
c. nor epinephrine

74. Assocatied with conns syndrome ? a
a. low plasma renin

75 not associated with barterrs syndrome ? c

a. hypokalemia
b. recurrent weakness
c. hypertension

76. most common presentation in endemic goitre ? c

a. hypothryoidism
b. adenoma
c. diffuse goitre

77. which of the following is not malignant ? a

a. adenolymphoma
b. adenoid cystic carcinoma
c. acinic cell

78. which of the following is associated with destruction of valves ? a
a. acute infective endocarditis
b. libman sach
c. rheumatic

79. which of the following is not the cause of Myocardial infarction ? don't know

a. coxsackie B
b. lead poisoining

80 which of the following is dimorphic fungi ? a

a. sporothtrix schenki
b. cryptococcus

81. what is the size of particle is rapid sand filter ? c ( answer is 0.4 to 0.7 mm )

a. o.1 mm
b. 0.2
c. 0.5
d. 0.8

82. what is diagnosed by xenodiagnosis ? a

a. chagas
b. malaria
c. kala azar

83. whip test is used for ? c

a. candida
b. gardenella
c. trichomonas

84. no need to treat partner in ? d

a. trichomonas
b. gardenella
c. herpex genitalis
d. candida

85. most common cause of primary adrenal insufficiency in india ? b
a. autoimmune
b. TB

86. which is false about crytpogenic TB ? a
a. age <> 40 years
b. incidental detected
c. bilateral
d. histology similar to invasive

104. which is not having underlying malignancy ? a

a. paget disease of bone
b. paget disease of nipple
c. paget disease of vulva
d. paget disease of anal region

105. which is not true about PBC ? a

a. no increase in risk of hepatocellular carcinoma

106. string sign of kantor seen in ? a

a. chrons
b. ulcerative colitis

107. claw sign seen in ? a

a. intusseption
b. volvulus

108 treament of hydatid cyst ? b

a. excision of cyst
b. percutanoeous drainage
c. conservative managment

109. Most common site of intra peritoneal abscess ? c
a. morrison
b. omental bursa
c. pelvic
d. left subhepatic

110. Complete Rx of intussception indicates ? b

a. free passage of barium in the small intestine
b. passage of faceus and flatus along with barium
c. improvement of clinical condition

111. which is false about hydrocele ? c ( surgical Das mentions as a rule testis cannot be felt sepearately as the fluid of hydrocele sorrounds the body of the testis on page 314 in short cases of DAS surgery )

a. almost always fluid is transudate
b. get above the swelling
c. testis is palpated separate from swelling
d. obscures inguinal hernia

112. Functional brace not used in ? a

a. fracture neck of femur
b. fracture shaft of femur
c. fracture shaft of tibia
d. fracture shaft of humerus

113, which of the following is incorrect about scaphoid? c

a. most common carpal bone injured
b. non union is complication
c. avascular necrosis of distal part is there
d. x rays to be taken successively after 2 weeks

114. what is true about dequervan tenovaginitis ? a

a. involvement of extensor pollicis brevis and abductor pollicis longus

115. what is incorrect about supra condylar fracture of humerus ? c

a. extension type is common
b. radial nerve is injured
c. cubitus valgus is most common complication

116. Mechanism of action of mini pill ? a

a. rendering cervical mucus thick
b. inhibiting ovulation

117. Incorrect about internal os of cervix ? b

a. hegar dilators used
b. most common cause of first trimester abortion

118. latent period in primigravida is ? b

a. 2 hours
b. 6 to 8 hours
c. 10 to 12 hours
d. 14 to 16 hours

119. most reversible method of sterilisation ? c

a. mini lap
b. pomeroys
c. laparoscopic sterilisation
d. hysteroscopic sterilisation

120 Maltese cross in RBC seen in ? a

a. babesia
b. Entamoeba

121. which is incorrect about cystic hygroma ? b

a. brilliantly translucent
b. radiotherapy
c. sclerotherapy with bleomycin
d. sclerotherapy with actinomycin

122. which of the following is not the cause of macrocytic anaemia ? b

a. orotic aciduria
b. abetalipoproteinemia
c. Lesh nyhan
d. transcobalamine deficiency

123 . Not the cause of neonatal seizures ? b

a. pyridoxine deficiency
b. hypokalemia

124. Anti Avidin is ? a

a. biotin
b. thiamine

125. which is incorrect about Burkitts lymphoma ? b

a. High mitotic activity
b. HIgh Apoptotic cell death
c. small nuclei proliferation

126. Serious complication of bacterimic shock ? a

a. causes shock lung
b. decrease peripheral resistance
c. increase cardiac output
d. decrease cardiac output

127. Calcium channel blocker showing affinity to cerebral vessels ? a

a. nimodipine

128. chromosome associated with familial polyposis colon ? a

a. chromosome 5
b. chromosome 6
c. chromosome 11
d. chromosome 13

129. which of the following is the cause of break of glomerular basement membrane sometimes and sub epithelial deposits in electron microscopy? c ( rapidly progressive is the answer )

a. membranous
b. focal glomerular sclerosis
c. rapidly progressive
d. minimal change

130. which of the following is not the branch of maxillary branch of internal carotid artery ? d
a. inferior alveolar
b. middle meningeal
c. anterior tympanic
d. posterior tympanic

131. which of the following is untrue about calcium homeostastis in chronic renal failure ? b

a. secondary hyperparathryoidism
b. primary hyperparathyroidism
c. multiple myeloma

132. what is column of bertini in kidney ? b

a. renal tumour
b. anatomical description given ( tongue shape extension )

133. Skeletal muscle most sensitive to tubocurarine ? b

a. diaphragm
b. Extra ocular
c. muscles of jaw

134. which is not true about VVF ? answer is b . SECONDARY amenorrhea seen in vvf .

a. amenorrhea
b. Hydronephrosis

Health and Social Consequences of VVF

With some of the causes of VVF established, it is important to demonstrate their impact on women. Women with VVF suffer from urinary incontinence which, if not managed properly, causes them to smell of urine. This continuous urine leakage makes them vulnerable to urinary tract infection, vaginitis, and excoriation of the vulva (that is, injury to the surface of the skin or a mucous membrane caused by physical abrasion, such as scratching). Stricture of the vagina (vaginal stenosis), whereby the vagina narrows, SECONDARY AMENNORHEA , possible future inability to carry a child even after obstetric repair of VVF, and a low child survival rate are also conditions related to VVF (WHO 1991). to view the page from where this reference was taken . click here .

135. which of the following leads to cyclical haematuria ? a

a. vesico uterine fistula

136. which is correct about this ? c

a. Sperm production is cyclical
b. Continous Gnrh secretion is essential
c. sertoli cells are important for mitotic and meiotic activity
d. secretion of testosterone from leydig cells depends upon FSH

137. What is the stage of ovarian cancer with b/l with capsule intact, no ascites ? b

a. IA
b. IB
c. IC
d. II

138. what is epicolic node ? b

a. node draining colon
b. adjacent to aorta

139. A boy draws triangle but not diamond shape age is ? c

a. 3 years
b. 4 years
c. 5 years
d. 6 years

140. which of the following is not included in Human developmental index ? a

a. Infant mortality rate
b. percapita income
c. life expectancy at birth
d. Education

141. Most common presentation of Meckels diverticulum ? a

a. Lower GI bleeding

142. Bulging fissure in lung is due to infection ? b ( Klebsiella)

a. Mycoplasma
b. Klebsiella

143. which deficiency is seen in alcoholic with dementia ? a

a. Thiamine

144. Which microorganism is responsible for classical presentation of hydrocephalus, chorio retinitis , intracerebral calcification ? a

a. Toxoplasmosis

b. Rubella

145. Which defect is not detected by amniocentesis ? b
a. cystic fibrosis
b. phenyl ketonuria
c. downs syndrome

146. what is the drug of choice of antiepilepsy in porphyria ? d ( as comment received )

a. phenytoin
b. phenobarbitone
c. valproate
d. Clonazepam

147. which type of porphyria is transmitted as Autosomal recessive ? c

a. AIP
b. PCT
c. congenital erythropoietic
d. variegate

148. what is aseptic autolysis called ? a

a. maceration
b. adipocere
c. mummification

149. what is the mechanism of abruption of svt by carotid massage ? b

a. decrease sympathetic discharge
b. increase parasympathetic discharge to SA node
c. increase parasympathetic discharge to conducting system from SA to AV node
d. ventricular depolarisation

150. which of the following cast has no significance ? a

a. Hyaline cast

151. what is the range of proteinuria is microalbuminuria ? a

a. 30 to 300mg / d

152. which semicircular canal is stimulated with cold water ? a

a. lateral scc
b. posterior scc
c. anterior scc

153. which of the following is associated with renal stones ? b

a. tiagabine
b. zonasimide

154. In which of the following conditions acetazolamide is not used ? b

a. epilepsy
b. cirrhosis
c. glaucoma

acetazolamide: Adult Dosing

Dosage forms: 125,250; IV

glaucoma, open-angle

125-250 mg PO/IV bid-qid

glaucoma, angle-closure

125-250 mg PO/IV q4h
Start: 500 mg PO x1; Info: for preop management of acute angle-closure glaucoma

altitude sickness prevention

250-500 mg PO bid
Alt: may use up to 250 mg PO qid for rapid ascent; Info: 1st dose 24-48h before ascent, last dose 48h after peak ascent or until symptoms resolved


375-1000 mg PO daily
Start: 250 mg PO qd if w/ other anticonvulsants


250-375 mg PO/IV qd
Info: best results w/ alternate day therapy

drug-induced edema

250-375 mg PO/IV qd x1-2 days
Info: best results w/ alternate day therapy

urinary alkalinization

5 mg/kg PO/IV
Info: repeat 2-3 times per 24h to maintain alkaline urine

renal dosing

adjust dose frequency
CrCl 10-50: give q12h; CrCl <10:>

hepatic dosing

see below
significant impairment/cirrhosis: contraindicated

acetazolamide: Contraindications/Cautions

  • hypersens. to drug/class/compon.
  • hypokalemia
  • hyponatremia
  • acidosis, hyperchloremic
  • acidosis, metabolic
  • adrenal insufficiency
  • cirrhosis
  • liver dz, severe
  • renal dz, severe
  • glaucoma, angle-closure (long-term use)
  • caution if hypersens. to sulfonamides
  • caution if ASA tx, high-dose
  • caution if impaired liver fxn
  • caution if impaired pulm. fxn
  • caution if diabetes mellitus
  • caution if gout
  • caution in elderly pts
  • avoid prolonged UV/sunlight
to check out the page where the reference was taken from click here

155. Which of the following is not the presentation of Extrinsic allergic alveolitis ? answer is a .

a. Bronchial asthma and wheeze
b. B/l reticulo nodular shadows
c. dry cough with headache
d. fever with myalgia

What are the symptoms of extrinsic allergic alveolitis?

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis, once a person is sensitized, can show three different types of responses: acute (intense) response, sub-acute (recurrent) response, and chronic (long-term) response.

The acute attack is triggered by heavy exposure to dust. It starts with fever, muscular aches and a general, unwell feeling or malaise. These symptoms are accompanied by tightness in the chest, a dry cough, and shortness of breath.

The sub-acute response occurs most frequently to people exposed to relatively low levels of dust. It is marked by cough, shortness of breath, sweating, sore throat, headache, and nausea.

The chronic response develops after persistent acute attacks and recurrent sub-acute responses. It is marked by increasing shortness of breath, occasional fever, loss of weight, and general lack of energy. The victim suffers permanent lung damage and, in the worst cases, death may occur.

to check out the link where the above information was taken from click here .

156. Band shaped keratopathy seen in ? a

a. still's disease .

157. Which of the following is incorrect about dubin johnson syndrome ? a

a. alkaline phosphatase is elevated

158. Systolic murmur in TOF is due to ? b

a. VSD
b. pulm stenosis

159. which glycogen storage disease doesn't affect muscles ? a

a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4

160. Cholestasis is due to all except ? c

a. obesity
b. excessive haemolysis
c. high protein diet
d. pregnancy

161. which is the characteristic lesion of pregnancy ? d

a. vitiligo
b. pemphigus
c. tinea
d. chloasma

162. A person recently exposed to sex presents with painless granulomatous ulcer with everted edges ? a

a. primary chancre
b. chancroid
c. LGV
d. Donovanosis

163. which type of clostridium tetani has no flagella ? a ( not sure )

a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 4
d. type 3

164. Specific congenital abnormality associated with diabetes mellitus ? a

a. caudal regression syndrome
b. VSD

165. Fibrates acts by reducing ? b ( VLDL according to K.D.Tripati )

a. chylomicrons
c. LDL
d. HDL

166. shortest acting benzodiazipine ? a

a. midazolam
b. lorazepam

167. Severity of Aortic stenosis is determined by ? a

a. Late ejection systolic murmur

168. mRNA codes for ? a

a. poly A
b. poly U
c. poly C
d. poly G

169. Which of the following has propensity to metastasize through lymph nodes ? a

a. alveolar rhabdomyosarcoma
b. osteosarcoma

170. which of the following is not poor prognosis factor in malnutrition ? a

a. dermatosis
b. hepatomegaly

171. Extended ESI benefit are all except ? d

a. news paper establishments
b. non power 18 employees
c. non power less than 18 employees
d. small power 10 to 18 employees

172. which of the following is not seen due to mutiple myeloma ? b

a. amyloidosis
b. pxoximal tube defect
c. light chains

173. treatment of vault prolapse ? a

a. sacral colpoplexy

174. Not a contraindication for external cephalic version ? a

a. breech presentation

175. Not a leading cause of DIC in pregnancy ? c

a. eclampsia
b. abruptio placenta
c. Heart disease

176. Engaging diameter in brow presentation ? a

a. mentovertical

177 A blunt trauma to chest with Bp 80/50 pulse rate 100 /mt with jugular vein distention ? a

a. cardiac tamponade
b. pneumothorax

178. which of the follwoing doesn't change pH of stomach ? a

a. sucralfate
b. H2 blocker
c. omeprazole

179. Toxicity associated with haemodialysis ? a

a. Aluminium
b. magnesium

180. what is rider walker coefficent ? a

a. Efficacy in comparision to phenol

181. which of the following doesn't cause diarrhoea ? b

a. diabetes
b. hypercalcemia

182. which is not true about otosclerosis ? b

a. conductive deafness
b. non progressive deafness
c. autosomal dominant
d. flouride is therapeutic

183. which of the following is not associated with fulminant hepatic failure ?

a. herpes simplex
b. paramyxovirus
c. infectious mononucleosis

184. oral hairy leukoplakia caused by ? a

a. Ebstein barr virus

185. Contact period of chlorination ? a

a. 1 hour
b. 30 minutes
c. 1 1/2 hour
d. 2 hours

186. Which of the following is not associated with vibrio cholera ? a

a. Haemolytic uraemic syndrome

187 which of the following is not absorbable suture ? d

a. catgut
b. polyamide
c. polygalactyl
d. polyester

188. Prognosis of breast carcinoma is best determined by ? b

a. oestrogen/progesterone receptors
b. Axillary lymph node status

189. Sudden painless vision loss in a patient with myopia ? a

a. Retinal detachment
b. Central retinal artery occlusion

190. Most common site of Tuberculosis of genital tract ? c

a. endometrium
b. ovary
c. fallopian tube

191. Which of the following conditions disappear spontaneously in first year of life ? d

a. port wine stain
b. capillary haemangioma
c. cavernous haemangioma
d. strawberry haemangioma

192. which of the following is true about prostate cancer screeing ? a

a. Digital screening along with PSA is additive

193. 193. Which of the following is associated with Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis ? a

a. cholera
b. Diabetic keto acidosis
c. starvation
d. vomitting

194. Gynaecomastia not seen in ?a

a. Myxedema
b. Thyrotoxicosis

195. Discordant twin complication in multiple pregancy is due to ?

a. Twin Twin transfusion syndrome

196.Distressing Complication after modified radical mastectomy ? a
a. lymphedema
b. axillary vein thrombosis
c. seroma

197. Hyperosmolar agents in glaucoma acts by ? a ( I think it is a repeat ) if vitreous volume reduction given as option then that will be correct.

a. Increasing aqueous outflow

198. Most common cause of death due to burns in early period is ? b

a. sepsis
b. Hypovolemic shock

199. Initial management of dacrocystitis is ? c

a. syringing
b. topical antibiotics
c. massaging

200 Which of the following is not a anthropozoonosis ? c

a. Rabies
b. plague
c. dracunculosis

i think i repeated one question , because there is another question which has to be included . and that is

201 - what is the most common cause of perinatal mortality ?

a- birth asphyxia
b- birth injury
c- intrauterine infections
d- congenital anamolies

i think the answer is a . but not sure so please do post in the comments with reference and let me know the correct answer .

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