MATURITY ONSET DIABETES OF THE YOUNG ( MODY ) MUTATIONS
| MODY 1 | HNF 4 ALPHA mutation |
| MODY 2 | Glucokinase gene mutation |
| MODY 3 | HNF 1 ALPHA mutation |
| MODY 4 | IPF – 1 mutation |
| MODY 5 | HNF 1 BETA mutation |
| MODY 6 | Neuro D1 mutation |
HNF – stands for Hepatocyte Nuclear transcription Factor . IPF – stands for Insulin Promoter Factor .
401 - most common malignant tumour of the eyelids ?
basal cell carcinoma.
402 - ulcer serpens is caused by – PNEUMOCOCCUS
403 - sunflower cataract is seen in ?
answer is wilson's disease ( hepatolenticular degeneration )
--- i get confused with this snowflake and sunflower cataract . let me find a way to remember these. lets say THERE IS NOTHING FLORAL ABOUT DIABETES MELLITUS . that means sunflower cataract is related to wilson's disease and snowflake cataract is related to diabetes mellitus .
404 - snow flake cataract is seen in ?
answer is DIABETES MELLITUS
405 - match the following
pulsus paradoxus - cardiac tamponade
pulsus bisferiens - aortic stenosis and aortic regurgitation
pulsus alterans - left ventricular failure
pulsus parvus - aortic stenosis .
answer- all are correctly matched .
point to be noted - BOTH PULSUS BISFERIENS AND PULSUS PARVUS ARE SEEN IN AORTIC STENOSIS .
406 - in a patient with myocardial infarction the valvular lesion commonly seen is ?
answer is - mitral regurgitation .
407 - agent of first choice in an acute attack of prinzmetal's angina ?
answer is - nitrates ( sublingual nitroglycerin )
408 - what is the limb deformity u see in freeman-sheldon syndrome ?
a- severe CTEV
b- congenital dislocation of hip
c- congenital vertical talus
d- rocker bottom foot
the answer is a . this question was never asked and so i thought ill ask :-)
409 - bamboo spine - ossification of the lumbar spine - is seen in
ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS
410 - in 40 days of menstrual cycle , the ovulation occurs at?
a- 14 th day
b- 20 th day
c- 26 th day
d- 30 th day
the answer is c . no matter wat the length of the menstrual cycle is , the ovulation always occurs exactly 14 days before menstruation . so always have knowledge about
411- in a newborn , vagina is lined by which epithelium?
a- squamous epithelium
b- transitional epithelium
c- columnar epithelium
d- stratified epithelium
answer is b . transitional epithelium . oh god how shud i remember this one .
412 - pH of vagina in adults ?
4.5 to 5.5 . i dont like choices here , they confuse u further .
413 - - tennis racquet cells seen in ?
Answer is Rhabdomyosarcoma
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414 - Which of the following Anti RetroViral Drugs causes Steven Johnson syndrome as its complication?
1. Nevirapine
2. Stavudine
3. Indinavir
4. Ritonavir
Answer : Nevirapine is a non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor associated with Steven Johnson's syndrome.
415 - which drug is not used along with ziduvudine
Answer is Stavudine
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416 - Didanosine causes pancreatitis.
Indinavir is assoicated with Renal stones.
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417 - Hadfield's operation is done for ? (APPG 2007, Manipal 2007)
1. Mondor's disease
2. Periductal mastitis
3. Traumatic fat necrosis
4. Galactocoele
Answer is : Duct ectasia/periductal mastitis ( option 2)
Bailey and Love 23rd edition page number 757:
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418 - which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with 100 percent and specificity using fine needle aspiration?
1. Medullary cancer
2. Colloid cancer
3. Follicular cancer
4. Anaplastic cancer
5. Papillary cancer
Answer is : Papillary carcinoma of thyroid ( option 5)
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419 - Which of the following mentioned below is correct for representation of the serial fundal heights in the form of a Graph? (Manipal 2007)
1. Gravidogram
2. Nomogram
3. Cervicogram
4. Partogram
Answer : Option 1 ( Gravidogram)
420 - "UREA CYCLE"
1. Carbomyl phosphate is formed in Mitochondria
2. Citrulline is formed in Cytoplasm
3. Arginase converts Arginine to Ornithine in the formation of UREA
4. Arginosuccinase leads to the formation of Fumarate
5. Enzymes of Urea cycle are induced if a high protein diet is consumed for several days.
Choose the incorrect statement ?
a. option 1,2
b. option 1,2,3
c. option 2 only
d. option 2,5
All the options mentioned are correct except the option 2
Citrulline is actually formed in Mitochondria and transported to Cytoplasm.
421 - Which of the following is the shortest diameter of the mentioned below?
1. Obstetrical conjugate
2. Diagonal conjugate
3. True conjugate
4. Posterior sagittal diameter of inlet
Answer : Option 4 ( Posterior sagittal diameter of inlet) which is 4.25 to 5cm ref : Mudhliar 9th edition page number 5.
422 - POLIOMYELITIS is an example of ?
1. Epidemic
2. Endemic
3. Sporadic
4. Exotic
5. Epizootic
option 3 . correct.
Park 18th edition page number 86 mentions:
The word sporadic means scattered about. The cases occur irregurlarly, haphazardly from time to time , and generally infrequently. The cases are so few and separated widely in space and time that they show little or no connection with each other, nor a recognizable common source of infection.
423 - "BANGALORE Method" is a type of ?
1. Dumping
2. Controlled tipping
3. Incineration
4. Composting
5. Burial
Bangalore method is an Anaerobic method of composting.
Further reading for all the aspirants is recommended on the topic of disposal ;
Reference : Park 18 th edition, page number : 561-563
424 - Which of the following doesn't cause pulmonary fibrosis? (CMC Vellore 2007)
1. Nitrofurantoin
2. Bleomycin
3. Methotrexate
4. Amiodarone
5. Cytosine arabinoside
All the options mentioned are correct exept option 5 ( cytosine arabinoside)
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425 - Which of the following is involved in the regulation of apoptosis?
1. Glucose-6-phosphatase
2. Adenyl cyclase
3. Nitric oxide synthase
4. Aquaporin 2
5. Cytochrome c
answer is 5 .
426 - Which of the following acts directly on the nucleus to produe physiologic effects?
1. IL-1 Beta
2. Growth Hormone
3. Ghrelin
4. Dopamine
5. Estradiol
Estradiol is the right answer.
427 - There are five Aquaporins have been identified.
Aquaporin -1, -2 and -3 are found in the kidneys
Aquaporin -4 is found in the brain
Aquaporin -5 is found in salivary and lacrimal glands and in the respiratory tract
aquaporins 9 have been identified
The vasopressin-responsive water channel in the collecting ducts is aquaporin-2
428 - Simultaneous conflicting feelings (such as both love and hate) about a person, idea, or object is known as ?
1. Autism
2. Affect
3. Association
4. Ambivalence
Ans : Ambivalence
429 - "Haemorrhagica histirionica" is an example of ?
1. Hospital hoboes
2. Borderline personality
3. Schizophrenia
4. Alice in wonderland syndrome
Haemorrhagica histrionica is an example of Hospital hoboes ( Munchausen syndrome)
The term was coined by Richard Asher in a paper in the Lancet in 1951,1 taking the name of the legendary Baron von Munchausen. Patients present with feigned or simulated illnesses. The patient gains many hospital admissions through deception, either feigning surgical illness, hoping for a laparotomy (laparotimophilia migrans), or bleeding alarmingly (haemorrhagica histrionica) or presenting with curious fits (neurologica diabolica) or false heart attacks (cardiopathia fantastica).1,2,3 These 'hospital hobos' may cause themselves considerable injury. They should not to be confused with those who present with a history suggestive of renal colic and demand that only an injection of pethidine will suffice.
430 - "Braunwald sign " is seen in ?
1. Dilated cardiomyopathy
2. Cardiac tamponade
3. Hypertrophied obstructive cardiomyopathy
4. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
5. Constrictive pericarditis
answer 3 .
Occurrence of a weak pulse rather than a strong pulse immediately after a premature ventricular contraction (PVC). To detect this sign, watch for a PVC during cardiac monitoring and check the quality of the pulse after it. Braunwald sign may indicate hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
431 - Which of the following drug has low extent of first pass metabolism?
1. Propranolol
2. Verapamil
3. Salbutamol
4. Methyl Testosterone
5. Theophylline
Answer : Option 5 ( Theophylline)
432 - "Werewolve hand" is seen in ?
1. Erythropoietic protoporphyria
2. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
3. Porphyria cutanea tarda
4. Variegate porphyria
werewolf hand seen in congenital erythropoietic porphyria.
433 - Fasanella-Servat operation is done for ?
1. Ptosis
2. Blepharitis
3. Chalazion
4. External Hordeolum
answer 1 .
434 - CATARACTA BRUNESCENS is a type of ?
1. Congenital Cataract
2. Cortical Cataract
3. Nuclear Cataract
4. After Cataract
answer 3 .
435 - Moebius syndrome is associated with ?
1. Optic nerve
2. Oculomotor nerve
3. Vagus nerve
4. Facial nerve
answer is 4 . moebius syndrome is due to absence of facial nucleus.
436 - Gorlin's Sign is seen in ?
1. Myasthenia Gravis
2. Lambert Eaton Syndrome
3. Spino Muscular Atrophy
4. Ehler Danlos Syndrome
gorlin sign seen in ehler danlos syndrome...it`s the ability to touch the nose with the tongue!
437 - Congenital reduction or loss of subcutaneous fat and collagen of the hands and feet is called ?
1. Acrodynia
2. Acrogeria
3. Acroesthesia
4. Acrognosis
answer 2 .
438 - which of the following is not seen in pregancy?
1) increased fibrinogen
2) decreased fibrinolytic activity
3) thrombocytosis
4) unchanged protein –C
answer 3 .
439 - The Baermann culture technique for human feces helps to concentrate:
A. Enterobius vermicularis eggs.
B. Trichinella spiralis larvae.
C. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae.
D. Ascaris lumbricoides larvae.
Answer c .
440 - After India ink injection, the gravid proglottids of which cestode contain seven to thirteen branches on each side?
A. Taenia saginata
B. Taenia solium
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Dipylidium caninum
answer b.
441 - Which of the following is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with CLL ?
1. Trisomy 21
2. Trisomy 13
3. Trisomy 18
4. Trisomy 12
TRISOMY 12 & DELETIONS OF CHROMO 11&12
442 - Apple Jelly nodule seen in ?
a. syphilis
b. lupus vulgaris
c. tuberculosis
answer b .
443 - which of the following doesn't constitute Hutchison's triad?
a. Interstitial keratitis
b. Permanent deafness
c. Hutchinsons teeth(nothching of the two upper permanent incisors
d. Sabre Tibia
Ans : d
444 - CAGE questtionaire used in
1.alcoholism
2.mental retardation
ans 1
445 - absent a wave in jvp
1.atrial fibrillation
2.tricuspid atresia
ans 1
446 - kellys surgical repair done for
ans stress incontinence.
447 - virus associated with ca cervix are all except
1.human papilloma 12
2.HPV 16
3.HPV18
4.HPV31
ans 1
448 - Which of the following is used for grading of osteoporosis?
a. Singh's Index
b. Natarajan Index
Ans: a Singh's Index
449 - absense of fructose in semen indicates
ans.blockage of seminal vesicle.
450 - casts common in normal urine
a)hyaline
b)rbc
c)epithelial
answer a .
451 - FOX sign is seen in?
a)Gall stone ileus
b)ulcerative colitis
c)acute pancreatitis
d)aortic aneurysm
answer c .
452 - Tribadism is?
a)man havng anal sex with man
b)women having sex with women
c)man having anal sex with women
d)women having sex with animal
answer b .
453 - fluoride inhibits which enzyme in glycolysis:
a)enolase b)aconitase c)succinate dehydrogenase
answer a .
454 - Strawberry vagina is seen in?
a)lactobacillus
b)Trichomonas vaginalis
c)candida infection
answer b .
455 - Scaphocephaly is due to fusion of:
1. sagittal suture
2. caronal suture
3. lamboid suture
4. forgot
ans is sagittal suture
456 - In PAN all are involved except :
1. lung
2. liver
3. kidney
4. pancreas
answer is lung.
457 - Long arm chromosome 5 deletion is seen in
a) Crohn`s disease
b) Ulcerative colites
c)Polyposis coli
d) Pheochromocytoma
answer c .
Ulcerative colitis & crohn's -----Chromosome no.1, 3, 7, 12, 16
pheocromocytoma----------Ch.9
Poly.coli------Ch.5
in cri du chat syndrome there is deletion of one arm of the 5th chrmosome .
the child crys like a cat{mew}
458 - Shield ulcer is seen in
• Plycten
• Spring catarrh
• Conjunctivitis
answer b .
459 - a child is able to skip by
• 48months
• 54 months
• 60months
• 72 months
Answer 60 Months. 5 years .
460 - crystalline lens of eye develops from
• Surface ectoderm
• Nero ectoderm
• Mesoderm
Answer surface ectoderm
461 – kehr’s sign – splenic rupture – pain over left shoulder .
462 - charcot’s triad – pain , jaundice and fever – cholangitis – inflammation of bile duct
463 – more appropriate for diagnosis of cbd stones ?
answer: ERCP.
464 – MOST COMMON TYPE OF RENAL CELL CARCINOMA ?
ANS: CLEAR CELL TYPE
465 – 16 AND 4 – ADULT POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE 1 AND 2.
466 – Diffuse general peritonitis – 45 % of 2nd and 3rd degree burns
467 – peritoneal mice – appendicular epiploicae
468 – odourless peritoneal fluid – perforated peptic ulcer .
469 – mid axillary line- 8th intercostal space – liver biopsy ?
answer- lung injury .
470 - yellow coloured crusts are seen in?
Impetigo.
471 – resting ureteric pressure – 0 to 5 cms of water .
472 – flower vase type of pelvis – on intravenous urethrogram – horse shoe kidney .
473 – ectopic ureter – paradoxical incontinence .
474 – TB kidney – sometimes the only presentation – increased frequency.
475 – fluid levels are absent in ? meconium ileus .
476 – coffee bean sign –sigmoid volvulus .
477 – commonest site of ischemic colitis ?
answer : splenic flexure .
478 – burst abdomen – 7 th day .
479 – 1 unit of blood – increases hb by one gram .
480 – millroy’s disease – congenital lymphedema .
481 – cns tumor with calcification – oligodendroglioma ( 70 to 90 % )
even other tumors of brain show calcification .
482 – cyanotic heart disease – brain abscess – most common site – parietal lobe .
483 – cleft palate + mandibular hypoplasia + respiratory obstruction – Pierre robin syndrome
484 – folds of Hoboken are seen in ?
answer: umbilical cord.
485 – weight of placenta at term ?
answer: 500 gms.
486 – shortest diameter among the following?
a- true conjugate
b- obstetric conjugate
c- diagonal conjugate
d- none
answer is b . obstetric conjugate
487 – zygote reaches the uterine cavity at how many celled stage ?
answer: 16 celled stage.
488 – the most common site of puerperal infection is ?
a- episiotomy wound
b- placental site
c- vaginal laceration
d- cervical laceration
answer is b . placental site .
489 – commonest cause for puerperal sepsis ?
answer: streptococci.
490 – fastest acting triptan?
Answer: rizatriptan
491 – blue urine is seen with ?
answer: mitoxantrone.
492 – pus is rich in?
answer: PABA .
493 – drug of choice in pneumocystis carinii?
Answer: cotrimoxazole.
494 – oral contraceptive failure occurs by intake of ?
answer: RIFAMPICIN.
495 – coronary steal phenomenon is caused by which drug ?
answer: dipyridamole.
496 – lithium is used in a pregnant woman which congenital anamoly can occur in the fetus ?
answer: ebstein’s anamoly.
497 – HMG coA reductase inhibitors ?
answer: statins .
498 – drug of choice in absence seizures?
Answer: valproate and ethosuximide.
499 – drug of choice in partial seizures?
Answer: carbamazepine .
500 – dancing carotid sign – thyrotoxicosis , aortic regurgitation and any condition with hyperdynamic circulation .
301 - lantern on dome of st . paul - cervical fibroid .
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302 - combined OCP - failure rate - 0.1 %
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303 - Supination and pronation are done at all joints except
a. Superior radioulnar joint
b. Inferior radioulnar
c. Middle RUlnar joints
d. Radio carpal joint
answer is d . radio carpal joint .
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304 - whats collip`s hormone is
a) cortisol
b) insulin
c) thyroxine
d) parathormone
e) growth hormone
Its Parathormone .
Dosage of Parathormone is expressed in Collip Units
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305 - normal arterial blood gas values
all values from harri 16th
answer : partial pressure of CO2 in arterial blood (PaCO2)----4.7-5.9kPA /35 - 45mmHg.
partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood(PaO2)----11-13kPa / 80 - 100mmHg.
pHof blood --- 7.38- 7.44.-----lab
HCO3 ---- 21 -28mmol/L / 21 - 30 meq /L.
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306 - Risk of development of chorio carcinoma is maximum after:
1. Spontaneous abortion
2. H.Mole
3. Full term pregnancy
4. Pre-term pregnancy
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answer is 2
significantly higher risk:
Risk for the development of a hydatidiform or invasive mole or choriocarcinoma include:
a prior mole (30 times the risk)
maternal age greater than 40 years (5 times) or less than 20 years (1.5 times)
a previous spontaneous abortion (twice the risk)
At slightly lower risk:
Eating a diet high in vitamin A and having one or more children without having a previous abortion is statistically correlated with a lower than average risk of developing a complete mole.
Choriocarcinoma most frequently follows a previous complete hydatidiform mole (50%), though 25% may follow a normal pregnancy or spontaneous abortion.
according to OHCS (oxford series of clinical specialities)
50% of choriocarcinoma follows a benign mole
20% follow abortions
10% follow normal pregnancy.
so ans here is H.MOLE.
between one half & 2/3rds of malignant GTDs follow evacuation of a complete or partial mole.in that 50-70% are invasive moles & 30-50% are chorioca.PSST can follow any pregnancy event.
chorioca is 1000 times more likely to follow a mole than normal pregnancy.the risk is much higher with a complete mole than a partialmole.
ref:COG vol46, number3,547-554.
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307 - what is ondine curse ?
ondine curse is SLEEP APNOEA SYNDROME..
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308 - what is albert regime for diabetics on insulin?
when u do not exactly know the RBS levels and involves giving 8 units of plain insulin to the diabetic with 5% DNS.
Alberti & Thomas regime of insulin dosing schedule for diabetic patients used when due to slow lab works near real time blood sugar levels, unlike today, were not possible.
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309 - The earliest symptom in primary biliary cirrhosis is
a. Jaundice
b. Pruritis
c. Melanosis
d. Vomiting
The correct answer is B
Primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC) is a disease characterized by inflammatory destruction of the small bile ducts within the liver. PBC eventually leads to cirrhosis of the liver.
Most patients with PBC present with pruritus (itching). After pruritus, jaundice (yellow skin caused by bilirubin retention) is the most common presenting symptom.
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310 - Tetanus toxoid given during antenatal period will protect
a. Only the child
b. Only the mother
c. Both mother and child
d. Partially
The correct answer is C
Tetanus spores infect women and children through unsafe or unclean deliveries, accounting for an estimated 5% of maternal deaths and 14% of neonatal deaths.Tetanus toxoid vaccines can prevent infections and save the lives of mothers and infants alike. Pregnant women should receive at least two doses of tetanus toxoid, which provide one to three years of protection.
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311 - Fleischer ring is seen in
a. Tay Sachs disease
b. Keratoconus
c. Siderosis Bulbi
d. Contusion injury
The correct answer is B
Fleischer rings are pigmented rings in the peripheral cornea, resulting from iron deposition in basal epithelial cells. They are usually yellowish to dark-brown, and may be complete or broken.
Fleischer rings are indicative of keratoconus, a degenerative corneal condition that causes the cornea to thin and change to a conic shape.
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312 - Fracture dislocation of 2nd and 3rd cervical vertebrae is common in
a. Partial hanging
b. lynching
c. Judicial hanging
d. throttling
The correct answer is C
In judicial hanging the posterior arch of the axis is snapped clean off and remains fixed to the third vertebra, while the atlas, the Odontoid process, and the anterior arch of the axis remain fixed to skull.
Schneider and colleagues first introduced the term hangman fracture into the modern medical lexicon in 1965 when they described eight patients who sustained bilateral fractures through the neural arch of the axis, with or without dislocation of the body of the axis from that of the third cervical vertebra. According to these authors, "This type of fracture-dislocation occurs in modern judicial hanging and in some instances of traffic accidents".
Most likely, the forces involved in judicial hanging are much greater than those sustained by many motor vehicle accident victims, and the spinal disruption between C2 and C3 caused by judicial hanging is 3 -considerably greater.
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313 - Antiglomerular Basement Membrane Antibodies are seen in
a. Goodpasture syndrome
b. Henoch-Schonlein pupura
c. Heymann nephritis
d. Systemic Lupus erythematosus
The correct answer is A
Goodpasture syndrome (antiglomerular basement membrane disease)
a. The cause is antibodies (antiglomerular basement membrane antibodies) directed against antigens in glomerular and pulmonary alveolar basement membranes.
b. Fluorescent antibody studies for IgG demonstrate linear immunofluorescence.
c. Clinical manifestations include:
(1) Nephritic syndrome
(2) Pneumonitis with hemoptysis (hemorrhagic pneumonitis)
(3) Peak incidence in men in their mid-20s
(4) RPGN crescentic morphology with linear immunofluorescence
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314 - Regarding twins
a. Most are monozygotic (identical) (False)
Explanation: Two thirds are dizygotic.
b. Monozygotic twins face the greatest risks (True)
c. Pre-term labour is a major cause of mortality (True)
d. Infant mortality rates are higher for twins than for singletons (True)
Explanation: All categories of perinatal and infant mortality rates are higher for twins.
e. There is an increased incidence of pre-eclampsia (True).
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315 - among the pulses , the highest quantity of protein is present in ?
a- soyabean
b- red gram
c- green gram
d- black gram
answer is a . soya bean .
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316 - the most common tumor of the minor salivary gland ?
answer : adenoid cystic carcinoma followed by mucoepidermoid carcinoma .
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317 - which of the following local anaesthetics is also an antiarrythmic ?
a- lignocaine
b- procaine
c- bupivacaine
d- cocaine
answer is a . lignocaine .
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318 - keinbock's disease - avascular necrosis of lunate .
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319 - which of the following aminoacids are purely ketogenic ?
answers : leucine and lysine .
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320 - von brun's nest is seen in ?
a- normal urothelium
b- transitional cell carcinoma
c- squamous cell carcinoma
d- adeno carcinoma
answer is a . normal urothelium .
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321 - trotter's triad is seen in ?
answer : carcinoma nasopharynx .
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322 - the drug of choice in paroxysmal supraventricular tachycardia ?
answer : adenosine .
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323 - antibody produced during primary immune response ?
answer : Ig M .
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324 - mineral oils are used in mosquito control measures as ?
a- larvicide
b- adulticide
c- space spray
d- a personal protection method
answer is a . as a larvicide .
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325 - pneumonia alba is due to treponema pallidum .
congenital fatal prenatal syphilis .
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326 - dose of anti D gamma globulin given after first trimester abortion is ?
answer : 50 micrograms .
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327 - ' bird of prey sign ' is seen in barium examination of which condition ?
answer : sigmoid volvulus .
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328 - perioral pallor and dennie's line - atopic dermatitis .
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329 - the preganglionic parasympathetic fibres to the parotid gland travel in ?
ans: lesser petrosal nerve .
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330 - in normal conditions of temperature and atmosphere , the rate of cooling of dead body is ?
answer : 1.5 degree fahrenheit / hour
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331 - the earliest clinical sign of vitamin A deficiency ?
a- conjunctival xerosis
b- bitots spots
c- corneal xerosis
d- keratomalacia
answer is a .
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332 - SSPE is associated with - measles .
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333 - buruli ulcer - causative organism - mycobacterium ulcerans .
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334 - commonest complication of CSOM ?
a- mastoiditis
b- brain abscess
c- sub periosteal abscess
d- meningitis
answer is a . mastoiditis .
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335 - superior colliculus is concerned with ?
a- vision
b- hearing
c- olfaction
d- pain sensation
answer is a . vision , but a little bit of hearing too .
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336 - oral contraceptive of choice in a lactating woman is ?
a- mini pill
b- monophasic pill
c- biphasic pill
d- triphasic pill
answer is a . mini pill .
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337 - spina ventosa is caused by ?
answer : tuberculosis . TUBERCULOUS DACTYLITIS is called spina ventosa .
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338 - ECG change seen in hyperkalemia ?
answer : narrowing and peaking of T waves .
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339 - the poison that can be detected afer death in hair is ?
ans : arsenic .
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340 - the most common site of ectopic pheochromocytoma ?
answer: organ of zuckerkandl .
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341 - pawn ball megakaryocytes - MYELODYSPLASTIC SYNDROME .
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342 - argon laser trabeculoplasty is done in ?
a- open angle glaucoma
b- closed angle glaucoma
c- secondary glaucoma
d- angel recession glaucoma
answer is a . open angle glaucoma .
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343 - grey turner's sign - flank discoloration - acute pancreatitis .
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344 - yellow fever is absent in india because ?
a- climatic conditions are not favorable
b- virus is not present
c- vector mosquito is absent
d- population is immune
answer is b . vectors are plenty .
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345 - facial angle is a rough index of the degree of development of the ?
a- brain
b- jaws
c- nose
d- eyes
answer is a . brain .
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346 - sclera is thinnest at ?
a- insertion of recti
b- limbus
c- posterior pole
d- equator
answer is a.
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347 - the recommended drug for the prophylaxis of influenza A and B ?
answer : amantidine .
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348 - post mortem rigidity first starts in ?
a- eyelids
b- neck
c- upper limbs
d- lower limbs
answer is a .
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349 - gartner's duct is a remnant of ?
answer : wolffian duct .
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350 - emporiatrics deals with the health of ?
answer : travellers .
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351 - fetishism - sexual perversion ?
answer : sexual pleasure derived from non living objects .
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352 - agoraphobia is a disorder characterised by all of the following except ?
a- visual hallucinations
b- avoidance of situations in which it is difficult to obtain help
c- presence of panic symptoms
d- avoidance of being outside alone
answer is a .
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353 - anopheles species most commonly found in coastal region ?
answer : anopheles stephensi
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354 - sex can be established by examining hair root cells for the presence of ?
answer - barr body .
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355 - bhopal gas tragedy - point source epidemic .
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356 - cryptomenorrhea - hidden menses - causes ?
a- ashermann's syndrome
b- imperforate hymen ( hematocolpus )
c- mullerian agenesis
d- all
answer is only b .
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357 - long term tamoxifen therapy - endometrial carcinoma .
tamoxifen is used in the therapy of breast cancer .
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358 - endometrial carcinoma - inguinal lymph nodes involved - stage IV B .
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359 - dysgerminoma - chemotherapy ?
answer : bleomycin , etoposide and cisplatin . BECk .
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360 - attacks of flushing and cyanosis occur in which type of ovarian tumor ?
a- granulosa cell tumor
b- struma ovarii
c- krukenberg
d- arrhenoblastoma
e- carcinoid tumor of ovary
answer is e .
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361 - meig's syndrome - most common ovarian tumor?
fibroma .
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362 - peenaud's maneouvre - breech presentation .
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363 - commonest causeof breech ?
ans: prematurity .
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364 - most common organ involved in retroperitoneal fibrosis ?
answer: ureter .
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365 - most common type of intussusception ?
answer: ileo-colic intussusception .
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366 - most common cause of urethral stricture in a young person ?
a- trauma
b- gonococcal
c- syphilis
d- tuberculosis
answer is a . trauma .
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367 - campimetry is used to study ?
answer : field charting .
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368 - which is the most common cause of cotton wool spots ?
answer : diabetes mellitus .
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369 - drug of choice in bacterial vaginosis ?
answer : metronidazole. in pregnancy also metronidazole .
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370 - best treatment for senile vaginitis ?
answer : HRT + local estrogen cream .
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371 - in high myopia - hemorrhage at macular spot - foster-fuchs fleck .
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372 - roth's spots - fundus - subacute bacterial endocarditis .
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373 - TB genital tract - most common age affected ?
answer : 20 to 30 years .
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374 - crocodile tears ?
answer : abnormal 7 th nerve regeneration .
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375 - tears are produced in the new born after how many weeks ?
answer : 1 week .
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376 - horner tranta's spots are seen in ?
answer : vernal conjunctivitis ( spring catarrh )
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377 - WHO definition of blindness is a visual acuity in the better eye equal to or less than ?
answer : 3 / 60 . ( check the answer again )
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378 - best diagnosis in best disease ?
answer : EOG .
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379 - which polyp has maximum malignant potential ?
a- sessile
b- pedunculated
c- superficial spreading
d- any of the above
answer is a . sessile .
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380 - most common benign tumor of stomach ?
a- adenoma .
b- lipoma
c- hamartoma
d- leiyomyoma
answer is a . actually adenoma is second most common and has high malignant potential , but hyperplastic ( regenerative ) polyps is the first common type of benign tumor of stomach .
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381 - the first gastrectomy was performed in 1881 by ?
answer : billroth .
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382 - trosier's sign - left supraclavicular lymph node enlargement .
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383 - precancerous condition of the stomach ?
a- lipoma
b- linitis plastica
c- atrophic gastritis
d- hyperacidity
answer is c . atrophic gastritis .
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384 - best time for surgery of hypospadias ?
a- 1-4 months of age
b- 6-10 months of age
c- 12 - 18 months of age
d- 2-4 years of age
answer is b . 6-10 months of age . 6 - 12 months of age exactly speaking .
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385 - best investigation to diagnose tubal patency ?
a- laparotomy
b- laparoscopic chromotubation
c- rubin's test
d- HSG
answe is b . laparoscopic chromotubation .
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386 - insensible water loss per day ?
answer : 800 to 1000 ml .
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387 - how long can the blood be stored in CPD - A ?
a- 21 days
b- 12 days
c- 28 days
d- 48 days
answer - c . upto 35 days . only CPD - 21 days .
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388 - maximum life span of transfused RBC ?
answer - 50 days .
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389 - rosenthal syndrome - deficiency of which clotting factor ?
answer - 11 th factor . hemophilia C .
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390 - platelets are stored at ?
answer - 20 to 24 degrees for 5 days
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391 - which one of the following blood fractions is stored at 40 degree centigrade ?
a- cryoprecipitate
b- human albumin
c- platelet concentrate
d- packed RBC
answer is a . cryoprecipitate .
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392 - following TPN weight loss is seen ?
answer : upto 7 days .
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393 - in prostatic metastasis the site most common affected ?
a- obturator nodes
b- perivesical nodes
c- presacral nodes
d- para- aortic nodes
answer is a . obturator nodes .
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394 - marions disease ?
answer : muscular hypertrophy of internal sphincter of urinary bladder .
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395 - mc Neal 's peripheral zone - PROSTATE - carcinoma .
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396 - golf hole ureter - TB ureter .
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397 - boari's operation - bladder flap .
398 - Which of the following actions is related to Thiazide diuretics?
A. Hyperuricemia
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Hypoglycemia in Diabetics
D. Hypercalcemia
answer is a . thiazides are related to hyperuricemia.
399 - in the perspective of the busy life schedule in the modern society the accepted minimum period of sexual cohabilitation resulting in no offspring for a couple to be declared infertile is ?
answer is 1 year .
400 - visible spectrum - 400 to 700 mu
