96 - test yourself in medicine - multiple choice questions in medicine with answers and explanations - 701 to 800

701 - glutathione is a tripeptide comprising of ?

answer : glutamic acid , cysteine and glycine .

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702 - pinta is caused by ?

answer : treponema cerateum .

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703 - pneumococcus : capsulated , gram positive , quellung or neufeld reaction , draughtsman concentric rings on culture , non-motile and oxidase and catalase negative .

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704 - liver transplantation was first done by ?

answer : starzl .

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705 - most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue typing ?

answer : HLA-D .

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706 - HLA matching is not necessary in which of the following organ transplantation ?

answer : liver transplantation .

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707 - vitamin C deficiency causes deficiency of which enzyme ?

answer : proline hydroxylase .

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708 - the couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of ?

answer : hepatic veins and portal vein .

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709 - post gonococcal stricture urethra is most commonly situated in the ?

answer : bulbar urethra .

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710 - reimplantation time for lower limb ?

answer : 8 hours .

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711 - after oesophagectomy the best substitute of oesophagus is ?

answer : stomach .

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712 - best and definitive diagnosis for breast lump ?

answer : open biopsy ( excision biopsy ).

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713 - first diagnostic procedure when the patient presents with lump is ?

answer : FNAC .

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714 - most malignant type of carcinoma breast ?

answer : mastitis carcinomatosa .

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715 - flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is ?

answer : TRAM .

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716 - spleniculi are accesory spleens , they are seen in ?

answer : hilum .

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717 - splenosis means ?

answer : rupture of spleen and distribution of its tissue on peritoneum .

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718 - spleen contains about how much percentage of the total blood volume ?

answer : 2 % .

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719 - removal of senescent RBC from the circulation by spleen is called ?

answer : culling .

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720 - triad of hypernephroma ?

answer : pain , hematuria and renal mass .

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

721 - gredinogo's triad ( petrositis ) ?

answer : persistent ear discharge , retroorbital pain and 6th nerve palsy .

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

722 - triad of behcet's syndrome ?

answer : recurrent oral ulcers , genital ulcers , iridocyclitis ( + skin ulcers make a tetrad ) .

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723 - triad of kwashiorkor ?

answer : oedema , growth retardation and mental changes ( apathy , listlessness , lethargy ) .

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724 - gold standard diagnostic test for varicose veins ?

answer : duplex imaging .

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725 - NNRTI s - DEN - delaviridine , efavirenz , nevirapine .

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726 - Neuritic Plaques - seen in Alzheimer's.

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727 - Coarse azurophilic granules in the leuko - seen in ALDER - REILLY SYNDRome .

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728 - Albumino-Cytologic Dissociation is pathognomic for Guillain-Barre (markedly increased protein in CSF with only modest increase in cell count).

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729 - Rouleaux Formation is pathognomic for multiple myeloma RBC's stacked as poker chips.

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730 - Podagra is pathognomic for gout (MP joint of hallux).

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731 - Wire Loop Glomeruli is pathognomic for lupus nephropathy type IV.

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732 - Chancre is pathognomic for primary Syphilis.

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733 - Gower's Maneuver is pathognomic for Duchenne's MD use of arms to stand.

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734 - S3 Heart Sound is pathognomic for L®R Shunt (VSD PDA) & Mitral Regurg & LV Failure.

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735 - Depigmentation Of Substantia Nigra is pathognomic for Parkinson's.

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

736 - Cold Agglutinins is pathognomic for Mycoplasma pneumoniae & infectious mononucleosis.

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

737 - Crescents In Bowman's Capsule is pathognomic for rapidly progressive (crescentic glomerulonephritis).

--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

738 - Painless Jaundice is pathognomic for pancreatic CA (head).

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

739 - Erythema Chronicum Migrans is pathognomic for Lyme Disease .

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

740 - Basophilic Stippling of RBCs is pathognomic for lead poisoning .

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

741 - Thyroidization of Kidney is pathognomic for chronic pyelonephritis .

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

742 - Tendinous Xanthomas is pathognomic for Familial Hypercholesterolemia .

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

743 - S4 Heart Sound is pathognomic for Pulmonary Stenosis & Pulmonary HTN.

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744 - cleft lip is due to nonfusion of - maxillary process with the medial nasal process .

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

745 - unilateral cleft lip is associated with - posterior displacement of alar cartilage .

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746 - most frequently fractured bone of the face ?

answer : nasal bone . then comes the zygomatic bone in the second place .

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747 - fracture mandible with edentulous jaw is best treated by ?

answer : external fixator .

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748 - common organism giving rise to UTI ?

answer : e coli .

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749 - acute urinary retention in a male child may be due to ?

answer : meatal ulcer with scabbing.

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750 - urinary cytology is a useful screening test for the diagnosis of ?

a- renal cell carcinoma

b- wilm's tumor

c- urothelial carcinoma

d- carcinoma prostate

answer is c . urothelial carcinoma .

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751 - low and fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in ?

answer : chronic renal failure .

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752 - on exertion urine stream increases in ?

answer : urethral stricture .

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------

753 - UTI exists when the bacterial count in 1 ml of midstream specimen of urine is ?

answer : 10 to the power of 5 or more . ( 100000 or more - 1 lakh or more ) .

----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

754 - site of transplantation in islet cell transplant for diabetes mellitus ?

answer : injected into the portal vein .

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755 - which of the following present as acute abdomen ?

a- acute intermittent porphyria

b- tabes

c- pneumonitis of the lower lobe

d- all

answer is d . all the above .

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756 - most common neoplasm of the appendix ?

answer : argentaffinoma ( carcinoid tumor ).

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757 - the most common site of enlargement of lymphnodes in hodgkin's lymphoma is ?

answer : mediastinal nodes .

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758 - treatment of acute lymphangitis ?

answer : antibiotics and rest .

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759 - total dose of radiation in hodgkins disease ?

answer : 3000 to 5000 rad ( 40 gy = 4000 rad ) .

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760 - most common site of lymphangiosarcoma ?

answer : post mastectomy edema of arm .

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761 - grade 1 lymphedema - edema disappearing after overnight rest ( pitting edema that disappears after lying down or rest )

grade 2 lymphedema - non pitting edema which does not disappear easily .

grade 3 lymphedema - lymphedema associated with irriversible skin changes like fibrosis and papillae .

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762 - most common infection after splenectomy ?

answer : streptococcal infection . ( mostly streptococcus pneumoniae )

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763 - most common complication after splenectomy is ?

answer : chest infection .

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764 - post splenectomy sepsis is common in ?

a- ITP

b- thalassemia

c- hereditary spherocytosis

d- trauma

answer is a , b , c .

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765 - the most important radiological sign of splenic rupture is ?

answer : obliteration of splenic shadow .

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766 - accidental small splenic rupture is treated with ?

answer : catgut suturing with omental patch .

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767 - splenic vein thrombosis is best treated by?

answer : splenectomy .

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768 - the rule of nine in the case of burns was first introduced by ?

answer : palaski and tennison and later modified by alexander wallace .

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

769 - IV fluids rule for burns ?

answer : percentage of body surface area burnt X weight of the person in kgs X 4 = VOLUME IN ml . parkland formula .

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770 - fibroblast in healing wound is derived from ?

answer : local mesenchyme .

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771 - the vitamin which has inhibitory effect on wound healing ?

answer : vitamin E .

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772 - parathyroid adenoma most commonly involves which of the following site ?

a- thyroid substance

b- superior parathyroid lobe

c- inferior parathyroid lobe

d- in the mediastinum

answer is c . inferior parathyroid lobe .

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773 - most common cause of hypercalcemic crisis is ?

a- parathyroid adenoma

b- parathyroid hyperplasia

c- carcinoma breast

d- paget's disease

answer is c . carcinoma breast .

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774 - opsoclonus - myoclonus is a phenomenon seen in ?

a- neuroblastoma

b- wilms tumor

c- meningioma

d- cortical tuberculoma

answer is a . neuroblastoma .

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775 - extraperitoneal rupture of urinary bladder - where is urine collected ?

answer : above urogenital diaphragm in the perivesical space .

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776 - nerve which lies in association with the wharton's duct ?

answer : lingual nerve .

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779 - pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the parotid , submandibular and the sublingual salivary glands .

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780 - the most common tumor of the minor salivary glands ?

answer : adenoid cystic carcinoma followed by the mucoepidermoid carcinoma .

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781 - most common duct stones - submandibular gland .

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782 - in prostatic metastasis - the nodes which are most commonly involved ?

answer : obturator nodes .

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783 - which of the following is the most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy ?

answer : dorsal venous complex .

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784 - " sterile needle test " helps in differentiating ?

a- depth of burns

b- healing process

c- degenerative process

d- infection

answer is a . depth .

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785 - gasless abdomen in X ray is a sign of ?

answer : acute pancreatitis .

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786 - BCL 1 gene - mantle cell lymphoma

BCL 2 gene - follicular lymphoma .

MEN 1 gene - MEN 1 syndrome .

RET gene - MEN 2 syndrome .

MET gene - papillary renal tumor.

APC gene - familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome .

RB1 gene - retinoblastoma .

HPC 1 - hereditary prostate cancer .

EXT 1 and EXT 2 - exostosis - chondrosarcoma - hereditary multiple exostosis .

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 - breast , ovarian , colon and prostate cancers - hereditary breast ovarian cancer .

-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

787 - in the acronym " swelling " used for history and examination of a lump or swelling , the letter N stands for ?

answer : noise ( thrill / bruit ) .

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788 - in triage yellow means - neither minor nor immediate category .

in triage green means - ambulatory patients / minor .

black - dead / non salvageable

red - immediate .

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789 - precancerous lesions of the larynx are?

answer : keratosis laryngis and pachyderma laryngis .

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790 - which of the following does not move on deglutition?

a- sublingual dermoid

b- thyroid nodule

c- pretracheal lymphnode

d- thyroglossal cyst

answer is a . sublingual dermoid .

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791 - secondaries in neck with no obvious primary malignancy is most often due to ?

a- carcinoma stomach

b- carcinoma larynx

c- carcinoma nasopharynx

d- carcinoma thyroid

answer is c . carcinoma nasopharynx .

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792 - the most common site of the internal opening of the branchial fistula is at the ?

answer : tonsillar fossa .

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793 - radical dissection of the neck includes all except ?

a- cervical lymph nodes

b- sternocleidomastoid

c- phrenic nerves

d- internal jugular veins

answer is c . phrenic nerves .

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794 - regarding cervical rib , which statement is correct ?

a- it causes pressure on the ulnar nerve.

b- pain is located in the forearm.

c- it always connects to the scalene tubercle by a fibrous band.

d- it passes through the apex of the supraclavicular triangle

answer is a and b .

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795 - which of the parts of the body is not affected by leprosy ?

answer : ovary .

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796 - in AIDS, lymphadenopathy is most often due to ?

a- TB

b- lymphoma

c- non specific enlargement of lymph node

d- kaposi sarcoma

answer is c .

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797 - multiple fistula in ano - commonly occurs in ?

a- TB

b- LGV

c- gonococcal protocolitis

d- colloid carcinoma of rectum .

answer is a and b .

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798 - erysipelas is caused by ?

answer : streptococcus pyogenes .

-------------------------------------------------------------------

799 - most common type of oral carcinoma ?

answer : Lip .

--------------------------------------------------------------------------

800 - which of the following causes the least irritation of the peritoneal cavity ?

a- bile

b- blood

c- gastric enzyme

d- pancreatic enzyme

answer is b . blood .

93 - test yourself in medicine - mcqs with answers and explanations - 401 to 500

401 - most common malignant tumour of the eyelids ?

basal cell carcinoma.

402 - ulcer serpens is caused by – PNEUMOCOCCUS

403 - sunflower cataract is seen in ?

answer is wilson's disease ( hepatolenticular degeneration )

--- i get confused with this snowflake and sunflower cataract . let me find a way to remember these. lets say THERE IS NOTHING FLORAL ABOUT DIABETES MELLITUS . that means sunflower cataract is related to wilson's disease and snowflake cataract is related to diabetes mellitus .

404 - snow flake cataract is seen in ?

answer is DIABETES MELLITUS

405 - match the following

pulsus paradoxus - cardiac tamponade

pulsus bisferiens - aortic stenosis and aortic regurgitation

pulsus alterans - left ventricular failure

pulsus parvus - aortic stenosis .

answer- all are correctly matched .

point to be noted - BOTH PULSUS BISFERIENS AND PULSUS PARVUS ARE SEEN IN AORTIC STENOSIS .

406 - in a patient with myocardial infarction the valvular lesion commonly seen is ?
answer is - mitral regurgitation .

407 - agent of first choice in an acute attack of prinzmetal's angina ?

answer is - nitrates ( sublingual nitroglycerin )

408 - what is the limb deformity u see in freeman-sheldon syndrome ?

a- severe CTEV

b- congenital dislocation of hip

c- congenital vertical talus

d- rocker bottom foot

the answer is a . this question was never asked and so i thought ill ask :-)

409 - bamboo spine - ossification of the lumbar spine - is seen in

ANKYLOSING SPONDYLITIS

410 - in 40 days of menstrual cycle , the ovulation occurs at?

a- 14 th day

b- 20 th day

c- 26 th day

d- 30 th day

the answer is c . no matter wat the length of the menstrual cycle is , the ovulation always occurs exactly 14 days before menstruation . so always have knowledge about ur girlfriend's menstrual cycle length before u do something .

411- in a newborn , vagina is lined by which epithelium?


a- squamous epithelium

b- transitional epithelium

c- columnar epithelium

d- stratified epithelium

answer is b . transitional epithelium . oh god how shud i remember this one .

412 - pH of vagina in adults ?

4.5 to 5.5 . i dont like choices here , they confuse u further .

413 - - tennis racquet cells seen in ?

Answer is Rhabdomyosarcoma

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414 - Which of the following Anti RetroViral Drugs causes Steven Johnson syndrome as its complication?

1. Nevirapine
2. Stavudine
3. Indinavir
4. Ritonavir

Answer : Nevirapine is a non nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor associated with Steven Johnson's syndrome.

415 - which drug is not used along with ziduvudine
Answer is Stavudine
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416 - Didanosine causes pancreatitis.

Indinavir is assoicated with Renal stones.

------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

417 - Hadfield's operation is done for ? (APPG 2007, Manipal 2007)

1. Mondor's disease
2. Periductal mastitis
3. Traumatic fat necrosis
4. Galactocoele

Answer is : Duct ectasia/periductal mastitis ( option 2)

Bailey and Love 23rd edition page number 757:
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418 - which of the following conditions can be diagnosed with 100 percent and specificity using fine needle aspiration?
1. Medullary cancer
2. Colloid cancer
3. Follicular cancer
4. Anaplastic cancer
5. Papillary cancer

Answer is : Papillary carcinoma of thyroid ( option 5)
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419 - Which of the following mentioned below is correct for representation of the serial fundal heights in the form of a Graph? (Manipal 2007)
1. Gravidogram
2. Nomogram
3. Cervicogram
4. Partogram

Answer : Option 1 ( Gravidogram)

420 - "UREA CYCLE"

1. Carbomyl phosphate is formed in Mitochondria
2. Citrulline is formed in Cytoplasm
3. Arginase converts Arginine to Ornithine in the formation of UREA
4. Arginosuccinase leads to the formation of Fumarate
5. Enzymes of Urea cycle are induced if a high protein diet is consumed for several days.

Choose the incorrect statement ?
a. option 1,2
b. option 1,2,3
c. option 2 only
d. option 2,5

All the options mentioned are correct except the option 2

Citrulline is actually formed in Mitochondria and transported to Cytoplasm.

421 - Which of the following is the shortest diameter of the mentioned below?

1. Obstetrical conjugate
2. Diagonal conjugate
3. True conjugate
4. Posterior sagittal diameter of inlet

Answer : Option 4 ( Posterior sagittal diameter of inlet) which is 4.25 to 5cm ref : Mudhliar 9th edition page number 5.

422 - POLIOMYELITIS is an example of ?

1. Epidemic
2. Endemic
3. Sporadic
4. Exotic
5. Epizootic

option 3 . correct.

Park 18th edition page number 86 mentions:

The word sporadic means scattered about. The cases occur irregurlarly, haphazardly from time to time , and generally infrequently. The cases are so few and separated widely in space and time that they show little or no connection with each other, nor a recognizable common source of infection.

423 - "BANGALORE Method" is a type of ?
1. Dumping
2. Controlled tipping
3. Incineration
4. Composting
5. Burial

Bangalore method is an Anaerobic method of composting.

Further reading for all the aspirants is recommended on the topic of disposal ;
Reference : Park 18 th edition, page number : 561-563

424 - Which of the following doesn't cause pulmonary fibrosis? (CMC Vellore 2007)
1. Nitrofurantoin
2. Bleomycin
3. Methotrexate
4. Amiodarone
5. Cytosine arabinoside

All the options mentioned are correct exept option 5 ( cytosine arabinoside)

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425 - Which of the following is involved in the regulation of apoptosis?

1. Glucose-6-phosphatase
2. Adenyl cyclase
3. Nitric oxide synthase
4. Aquaporin 2
5. Cytochrome c

answer is 5 .

426 - Which of the following acts directly on the nucleus to produe physiologic effects?

1. IL-1 Beta
2. Growth Hormone
3. Ghrelin
4. Dopamine
5. Estradiol

Estradiol is the right answer.

427 - There are five Aquaporins have been identified.

Aquaporin -1, -2 and -3 are found in the kidneys

Aquaporin -4 is found in the brain

Aquaporin -5 is found in salivary and lacrimal glands and in the respiratory tract

aquaporins 9 have been identified

The vasopressin-responsive water channel in the collecting ducts is aquaporin-2

428 - Simultaneous conflicting feelings (such as both love and hate) about a person, idea, or object is known as ?

1. Autism
2. Affect
3. Association
4. Ambivalence

Ans : Ambivalence

429 - "Haemorrhagica histirionica" is an example of ?

1. Hospital hoboes
2. Borderline personality
3. Schizophrenia
4. Alice in wonderland syndrome

Haemorrhagica histrionica is an example of Hospital hoboes ( Munchausen syndrome)

The term was coined by Richard Asher in a paper in the Lancet in 1951,1 taking the name of the legendary Baron von Munchausen. Patients present with feigned or simulated illnesses. The patient gains many hospital admissions through deception, either feigning surgical illness, hoping for a laparotomy (laparotimophilia migrans), or bleeding alarmingly (haemorrhagica histrionica) or presenting with curious fits (neurologica diabolica) or false heart attacks (cardiopathia fantastica).1,2,3 These 'hospital hobos' may cause themselves considerable injury. They should not to be confused with those who present with a history suggestive of renal colic and demand that only an injection of pethidine will suffice.

430 - "Braunwald sign " is seen in ?
1. Dilated cardiomyopathy
2. Cardiac tamponade
3. Hypertrophied obstructive cardiomyopathy
4. Restrictive cardiomyopathy
5. Constrictive pericarditis

answer 3 .

Occurrence of a weak pulse rather than a strong pulse immediately after a premature ventricular contraction (PVC). To detect this sign, watch for a PVC during cardiac monitoring and check the quality of the pulse after it. Braunwald sign may indicate hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

431 - Which of the following drug has low extent of first pass metabolism?
1. Propranolol
2. Verapamil
3. Salbutamol
4. Methyl Testosterone
5. Theophylline

Answer : Option 5 ( Theophylline)

432 - "Werewolve hand" is seen in ?

1. Erythropoietic protoporphyria
2. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
3. Porphyria cutanea tarda
4. Variegate porphyria

werewolf hand seen in congenital erythropoietic porphyria.

433 - Fasanella-Servat operation is done for ?

1. Ptosis
2. Blepharitis
3. Chalazion
4. External Hordeolum

answer 1 .

434 - CATARACTA BRUNESCENS is a type of ?

1. Congenital Cataract
2. Cortical Cataract
3. Nuclear Cataract
4. After Cataract

answer 3 .

435 - Moebius syndrome is associated with ?

1. Optic nerve
2. Oculomotor nerve
3. Vagus nerve
4. Facial nerve

answer is 4 . moebius syndrome is due to absence of facial nucleus.

436 - Gorlin's Sign is seen in ?
1. Myasthenia Gravis
2. Lambert Eaton Syndrome
3. Spino Muscular Atrophy
4. Ehler Danlos Syndrome

gorlin sign seen in ehler danlos syndrome...it`s the ability to touch the nose with the tongue!

437 - Congenital reduction or loss of subcutaneous fat and collagen of the hands and feet is called ?
1. Acrodynia
2. Acrogeria
3. Acroesthesia
4. Acrognosis

answer 2 .

438 - which of the following is not seen in pregancy?

1) increased fibrinogen

2) decreased fibrinolytic activity

3) thrombocytosis

4) unchanged protein –C

answer 3 .

439 - The Baermann culture technique for human feces helps to concentrate:

A. Enterobius vermicularis eggs.

B. Trichinella spiralis larvae.

C. Strongyloides stercoralis larvae.

D. Ascaris lumbricoides larvae.

Answer c .

440 - After India ink injection, the gravid proglottids of which cestode contain seven to thirteen branches on each side?

A. Taenia saginata

B. Taenia solium

C. Diphyllobothrium latum

D. Dipylidium caninum

answer b.

441 - Which of the following is the most common chromosomal abnormality associated with CLL ?

1. Trisomy 21
2. Trisomy 13
3. Trisomy 18
4. Trisomy 12

TRISOMY 12 & DELETIONS OF CHROMO 11&12

442 - Apple Jelly nodule seen in ?

a. syphilis
b. lupus vulgaris
c. tuberculosis

answer b .

443 - which of the following doesn't constitute Hutchison's triad?
a. Interstitial keratitis
b. Permanent deafness
c. Hutchinsons teeth(nothching of the two upper permanent incisors
d. Sabre Tibia

Ans : d

444 - CAGE questtionaire used in
1.alcoholism
2.mental retardation

ans 1

445 - absent a wave in jvp
1.atrial fibrillation
2.tricuspid atresia

ans 1

446 - kellys surgical repair done for

ans stress incontinence.

447 - virus associated with ca cervix are all except
1.human papilloma 12
2.HPV 16
3.HPV18
4.HPV31

ans 1

448 - Which of the following is used for grading of osteoporosis?
a. Singh's Index
b. Natarajan Index

Ans: a Singh's Index

449 - absense of fructose in semen indicates

ans.blockage of seminal vesicle.

450 - casts common in normal urine

a)hyaline
b)rbc
c)epithelial

answer a .

451 - FOX sign is seen in?

a)Gall stone ileus
b)ulcerative colitis
c)acute pancreatitis
d)aortic aneurysm

answer c .

452 - Tribadism is?
a)man havng anal sex with man
b)women having sex with women
c)man having anal sex with women
d)women having sex with animal

answer b .

453 - fluoride inhibits which enzyme in glycolysis:
a)enolase b)aconitase c)succinate dehydrogenase

answer a .

454 - Strawberry vagina is seen in?
a)lactobacillus
b)Trichomonas vaginalis
c)candida infection

answer b .

455 - Scaphocephaly is due to fusion of:

1. sagittal suture
2. caronal suture
3. lamboid suture
4. forgot

ans is sagittal suture

456 - In PAN all are involved except :

1. lung
2. liver
3. kidney
4. pancreas

answer is lung.

457 - Long arm chromosome 5 deletion is seen in

a) Crohn`s disease
b) Ulcerative colites
c)Polyposis coli
d) Pheochromocytoma

answer c .

Ulcerative colitis & crohn's -----Chromosome no.1, 3, 7, 12, 16

pheocromocytoma----------Ch.9

Poly.coli------Ch.5

in cri du chat syndrome there is deletion of one arm of the 5th chrmosome .
the child crys like a cat{mew}

458 - Shield ulcer is seen in
• Plycten
• Spring catarrh
• Conjunctivitis

answer b .

459 - a child is able to skip by
• 48months
• 54 months
• 60months
• 72 months

Answer 60 Months. 5 years .

460 - crystalline lens of eye develops from
• Surface ectoderm
• Nero ectoderm
• Mesoderm


Answer surface ectoderm

461 – kehr’s sign – splenic rupture – pain over left shoulder .

462 - charcot’s triad – pain , jaundice and fever – cholangitis – inflammation of bile duct

463 – more appropriate for diagnosis of cbd stones ?

answer: ERCP.

464 – MOST COMMON TYPE OF RENAL CELL CARCINOMA ?

ANS: CLEAR CELL TYPE

465 – 16 AND 4 – ADULT POLYCYSTIC KIDNEY DISEASE 1 AND 2.

466 – Diffuse general peritonitis – 45 % of 2^nd and 3^rd degree burns

467 – peritoneal mice – appendicular epiploicae

468 – odourless peritoneal fluid – perforated peptic ulcer .

469 – mid axillary line- 8^th intercostal space – liver biopsy ?

answer- lung injury .

470 - yellow coloured crusts are seen in?

Impetigo.

471 – resting ureteric pressure – 0 to 5 cms of water .

472 – flower vase type of pelvis – on intravenous urethrogram – horse shoe kidney .

473 – ectopic ureter – paradoxical incontinence .

474 – TB kidney – sometimes the only presentation – increased frequency.

475 – fluid levels are absent in ? meconium ileus .

476 – coffee bean sign –sigmoid volvulus .

477 – commonest site of ischemic colitis ?

answer : splenic flexure .

478 – burst abdomen – 7 th day .

479 – 1 unit of blood – increases hb by one gram .

480 – millroy’s disease – congenital lymphedema .

481 – cns tumor with calcification – oligodendroglioma ( 70 to 90 % )

even other tumors of brain show calcification .

482 – cyanotic heart disease – brain abscess – most common site – parietal lobe .

483 – cleft palate + mandibular hypoplasia + respiratory obstruction – Pierre robin syndrome

484 – folds of Hoboken are seen in ?

answer: umbilical cord.

485 – weight of placenta at term ?

answer: 500 gms.

486 – shortest diameter among the following?

a- true conjugate

b- obstetric conjugate

c- diagonal conjugate

d- none

answer is b . obstetric conjugate

487 – zygote reaches the uterine cavity at how many celled stage ?

answer: 16 celled stage.

488 – the most common site of puerperal infection is ?

a- episiotomy wound

b- placental site

c- vaginal laceration

d- cervical laceration

answer is b . placental site .

489 – commonest cause for puerperal sepsis ?

answer: streptococci.

490 – fastest acting triptan?

Answer: rizatriptan

491 – blue urine is seen with ?

answer: mitoxantrone.

492 – pus is rich in?

answer: PABA .

493 – drug of choice in pneumocystis carinii?

Answer: cotrimoxazole.

494 – oral contraceptive failure occurs by intake of ?

answer: RIFAMPICIN.

495 – coronary steal phenomenon is caused by which drug ?

answer: dipyridamole.

496 – lithium is used in a pregnant woman which congenital anamoly can occur in the fetus ?

answer: ebstein’s anamoly.

497 – HMG coA reductase inhibitors ?

answer: statins .

498 – drug of choice in absence seizures?

Answer: valproate and ethosuximide.

499 – drug of choice in partial seizures?

Answer: carbamazepine .

500 – dancing carotid sign – thyrotoxicosis , aortic regurgitation and any condition with hyperdynamic circulation .