150 - respiratory system mcqs - part 9

71q: which one of the following is not correct regarding silicosis ?

a. egg shell calcification is seen on chest X ray
b. it is more marked in the lower zone
c. may lead to progressive massive fibrosis
d. the disease may progress even after the exposure has ceased

answer: b .

72q: a person who has high fever,tachycardia,hemoptysis and a lobar consolidation on CXR has ?

a. bronchopneumonia
b. lobar pneumonia
c. pulmonary edema
d. pulmonary infarction

answer: b . lobar pneumonia .

73q: which one of the following organisms causes pneumatocele ?

a. klebsiella
b. hemophilus influenza
c. staphylococcus aureus
d. streptococcus pneumoniae

answer: c . staphylococcus aureus .

74q: kartagener's syndrome is not associated with ?

a. situs inversus
b. subluxation of lens
c. bronchiectasis
d. sinusitis

answer: b .

75q: with reference to cystic fibrosis , which one of the following statement is not correct ?

a. gene is located in the long arm of chromosome 7
b. lung function is grossly impaired at birth
c. pseudomonas infection is very common
d. diabetes is more commonly encountered than in normal population

answer: b . lung function is not actually grossly impaired at birth and hence b is the wrong statement .

76q: cystic fibrosis characteristically has all of the following features except ?

a. low levels of sodium and chloride in sweat
b. pancreatic insufficiency
c. biliary cirrhosis
d. bronchial obstruction

answer: a .

77q: a patient presents with breathlessness . he has bilateral basal crepitations. lung function tests reveal decrease in total lung capacity and vital capacity with normal FEV1/VC ratio. the most likely diagnosis is ?

a. chronic bronchitis
b. idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
c. cystic fibrosis
d. allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

answer: b . idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis .

78q: interstitial pulmonary fibrosis is associated with the following except ?

a. sarcoidosis
b. asbestosis
c. carcinoid lung
d. radiation exposure

answer: c . carcinoid lung .

79q: all the following are features of alveolitis ( interstitial lung disease ) except ?

a. exertional dyspnea
b. early productive cough
c. digital clubbing
d. coarse crepitations during inspiration

answer: b . early productive cough .

80q: pleural effusion in rheumatoid arthritis is typically associated with the following features except ?

a. glucose greater than 60 mg/dl
b. protein greater than 3gm/ml
c. pleural fluid to serum protein ratio greater than 0.6
d. pleural fluid to serum LDH ratio greater than 0.6

answer: a. rheumatoid arthritis is one of the causes of conditions with low glucose , other causes of pleural fluid low in glucose are mesothelioma ,empyema,malignant pleural effusion . tuberculosis and dressler syndrome are conditions with high glucose in pleural fluid .

148 - respiratory system mcqs - part 7

61q: study the results of the pulmonary function tests shown below ?

predicted FEV1 of 3.5-4.3 but actual FEV1 is 1.2
predicted FVC of 4.6-5.4 but the actual FVC is 4.1
predicted FEV1/FVC is 72-80 % but the actual value is 29 %
predicted PEF is 440-540 but the actual value is 80

the above results are consistent with the disease of ?

a. chronic bronchitis
b. interstitial lung disease
c. pneumonia
d. pneumothorax

answer: a . chronic bronchitis . the parameters indicate that the disease is an obstructive disease and so the answer is chronic bronchitis .

62q: a previously healthy factory worker was found unresponsive in his workplace .he is afebrile anicteric , tachypnoiec , drowsy and blue all over with
clear lung field and hyperdynamic cardiovascular findings.his ABG with 100 % oxygen after intubation was

pH = 7.30
pO2 = 80 mm of Hg
pCO2 = 30 mm of Hg
SaO2 = 50 %

what is the most likely diagnosis

a. methhemoglobinemia
b. adult respiratory distress
c. carbon monoxide poisoning
d. organophosphorous poisoning

answer: c . carbon monoxide poisoning . ( can anyone explain this - please post in comments ) .

63q: consider the following statements . life threatening features of acute severe asthma in children include

1. altered sensorium
2. pulsus paradoxus
3. audible wheeze in both inspiration and expiration
4. oxygen saturation 92-95 %

a. 1 is only correct
b. 1 and 2 are correct
c. 2 and 4 are correct
d. all are correct

answer: b . altered sensorium and pulsus paradoxus .

64q: poor prognostic indicators in acute severe asthma include all of the following except ?

a. pulsus paradoxus
b. hypocarbia
c. use of accessory muscles of respiration
d. PEFR less than 20 % of previous value

answer: b . hypocarbia .

65q: consider the following statements :

early onset extrinsic episodic asthma is characterised by ?

1. family history of eczema or rhinitis
2. development of an early and late asthamtic reaction mediated by mast cells
3. T lymphocytes that release cytokine like interleukin-4

which of the above statements are ture

a. 1,2 and 3 are true
b. 1 and 2 are true
c. 2 and 3 are true
d. 1 and 3 are true

answer: a . all the three statements are true .

147 - respiratory system mcqs - part 6

51q: FEV1/FVC ratio is decreased in all except ?

a. bronchiectasis
b. emphysema
c. chronic bronchitis
d. tuberculosis

answer: d . tuberculosis .

52q: drug of choice in asthma with heart disease ?

a. rimiterol
b. terbutaline
c. ipratropium
d. cromolyn sodium

answer: c . ipratropium .

53q: an exacerbation of farmer's lung ?

a. is commoner in summer
b. is characterised by intense wheeze
c. produces eosinophilia in the peripheral blood
d. is excluded by the absence of precipitating antibodies
e. disseminated intravascular coagulation

answer: ( if u know the answer please post in comments )

54q: sino bronchial infection is most commonly seen in ?

a. pneumoconiosis
b. kartagener's syndrome
c. uremia
d. down's syndrome

answer: b . kartagener's syndrome .

55q: features of fibrocystic disease include all except ?

a. meconium ileus
b. obstructive emphysema
c. pancreatic insufficiency
d. decreased Na and Cl in sweat

answer: d .

56q: chronic fibrosing mediastinitis is seen in all except ?

a. tuberculosis
b. histoplasmosis
c. plague
d. sarcoidosis

answer: c . plague .

57q: transudative type of pleural effusion is a feature of ?

a. variceal sclerotherapy
b. coronary artery bypass
c. radiation
d. peritoneal dialysis

answer: d . peritoneal dialysis .
other causes of the transudative pleural effusion are congestive heart failure, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome , meig's syndrome and hydronephrosis .

58q: external cardiac massage is usually done in ?

a. lower one third of sternum
b. xiphisternum
c. middle of sternum
d. manubrium

answer: a. lower one third of sternum .

59q: pulmonary edema due to narcotic overdose is mostly seen with ?

a. cocaine
b. heroin
c. morphine
d. methadone

answer: b . heroin .

60q: tubular breathing is seen in ?

a. pleural effusion
b. consolidation
c. pleurisy
d. tuberculous cavity

answer: b . consolidation .

146 - respiratory system mcqs - part 5

41q: hemoptysis is an important symptom in all except ?

a. idiopathic hemosiderosis
b. bronchial adenoma
c. alpha antitrypsin deficiency
d. pulmonary tuberculosis

answer: c . alpha antitrypsin deficiency .

42q: finger clubbing is not a usual feature with ?

a. mesothelioma
b. bronchiectasis
c. tropical eosinophilia
d. fibrosing alveolitis

answer: c . tropical eosinophilia .

43q: bulging fissure sign is characteristic of pneuomonia due to ?

a. anaerobic bacteria
b. mycoplasma
c. pseudomonas
d. klebsiella

answer: d . klebsiella .

44q: miliary mottling of the lung is seen in all except ?

a. silicosis
b. aspergillosis
c. hemosiderosis
d. tuberculosis

answer: b . aspergillosis .

45q: best position to reveal small pleural effusions on chest X ray is ?

a. AP view
b. PA view
c. lateral view
d. lateral decubitus view

answer: d . lateral decubitus view .

46q: stony dull note on percussion is charateristic of ?

a. pleural effusion
b. consolidation
c. pleurisy
d. tuberculous cavity

answer: a . pleural effusion .

47q: total minute volume of the normal lung is ?

a. 2 litres
b. 4 liters
c. 4.5 liters
d. 7 liters

answer: d . 7 liters .

48q: FEV1/VC is decreased in all except ?

a. bronchiectasis
b. emphysema
c. chronic bronchitis
d. interstitial lung disease

answer: d. FEV1/VC is normally decreased in obstructive lung diseases , in the options given only d is not an example of obstructive lung disease .

49q: in chronic obstructive pulmonary disease all are seen except ?

a. low FEV1
b. increased FEV1/VC ratio
c. smoking strongly associated
d. partially reversible with bronchodilator therapy

answer: b .

50q: bronchial asthma is associated with raised levels of ?

a. leukotrienes
b. PGI2
c. PGI1
d. thromboxane

answer: a . leukotrienes .

145 - respiratory system mcqs - part 4

31q: a patient with spontaneous pneumothorax involving more than 50 % of the hemithorax is best treated with ?

a. needle aspiration
b. closed drainage by tube in underwater seal
c. let spontaneous remission occur
d. open thoracotomy

answer: b . closed drainage by tube in underwater seal .

32q: hamman's crunch is seen in ?

a. caries tooth
b. fracture mandible
c. mediastinal emphysema
d. niemann-pick's disease

answer: c . mediastinal emphysema.

33q: the organism most frequently related to mediastinal fibrosis ?

a. actinomyces
b. histoplasma
c. hansen bacillus
d. staphylococcus

answer: b . histoplasma .

34q: hypercapnea at rest is most indicative of ?

a. hypoventilation
b. right to left shunt
c. impaired diffusion
d. CO poisoning

answer: a . hypoventilation .

35q: about systemic inflammatory response syndrome ( SIRS ) all are true except ?

a. leukopenia
b. hyperthermia
c. hypoxia
d. tachycardia

answer: c . hypoxia .

36q: lung abscesses are least likely to be caused by ?

a. histoplasma
b. staphylococcus
c. metastatic malignancy
d. primary carcinoma

answer: c . metastatic malignancy .

37q: primary disease causing raised PCO2 manifests as ?

a. respiratory acidosis
b. respiratory alkalosis
c. metabolic acidosis
d. metabolic alkalosis

answer: a . respiratory acidosis .

38q: the following are CNS findings of CO2 narcosis except ?

a. excitement
b. increased pH of CSF
c. decreased pH of CSF
d. papilloedema

answer: b . acidosis results due to CO2 narcosis therefore decreasing the pH .

39q: respiratory acidosis is seen with ?

a. DKA
b. pneumonia
c. emphysema
d. phenytoin

answer: c . emphysema .

40q: respiratory acidosis is seen with ?

a. starvation
b. hyperventilation
c. muscular dystrophy
d. vomiting

answer: c . muscular dystrophy .

144 - respiratory system mcqs - part 3

21q: which of the following is not a feature of kartagener's syndrome ?

a. bronchiectasis

b. pancreatic insufficiency

c. sinusitis

d. situs inversus 

answer: b . pancreatic insufficiency .

22q: complication of bronchiectasis are all except ?

a. cerebral abscess

b. lung abscess

c. amyloidosis

d. bronchogenic carcinoma 

answer: d . bronchogenic carcinoma is not a complication of bronchiectasis.

23q: what is the histological landmark of langerhan's cells ?

a. dendritic cell processes

b. giant mitochondria 

c. birbeck granules

d. increased serum alkaline phosphatase

answer: c . birbeck granules .

24q: pulmonary embolism causes all except ?

a. bradycardia

b. decreased cardiac output

c. arterial hypoxemia 

d. acute right ventricular strain 

answer: a . bradycardia .

25q: in acute pulmonary embolism, the most frequent ECG finding is?

a. S1Q3T3 pattern

b. P. pulmonale

c. sinus tachycardia 

d. right axis deviation 

answer: c . sinus tachycardia .

26q: which of the following is characteristic of pulmonary embolism ?

a. respiratory alkalosis

b. right axis deviatioin

c. normal A-a gradient

d. left ventricular strain 

answer: b . right axis deviation .

27q: pleural fluid low in glucose is seen in all except ?

a. rheumatoid arthritis

b. tuberculosis

c. mesothelioma

d. empyema

answer: b. tuberculosis .

28q: cause of hemorrhagic pleural effusion are all except ?

a. pulmonary infarction

b. mesothelioma

c. bronchial adenoma

d. tuberculosis 

answer: c . bronchial adenoma .

29q: all of the following are causes of hemorrhagic pleural effusion except ?

a. pulmonary embolism

b. rheumatoid arthritis

c. pancreatitis

d. TB

answer: c . pancreatitis .

30q: most unlikely cause of pleural effusion is ?

a. thyroid tumors

b. bronchial carcinoma

c. carcinoma breast

d. lymphoma

answer: a . thyroid tumors .

143 - respiratory system mcqs - part 2

11q: causes of hypersensitivity pneumonitis is/are ?

a. silicosis

b. farmer's lung

c. anthracosis

d. asbestosis

answer: b. farmer's lung caused by thermophilic actinomycetes .

12q: the following does not occur with asbestosis ?

a. pneumoconiosis

b. pleural mesothelioma

c. pleural calcification

d. methhaemoglobinemia

answer: d . methhaemoglobinemia .

13q: asbestosis causes which of the following ?

a. apical nodular fibrosis

b. coin shadow

c. hilar lymphadenopathy

d. basal peribronchal fibrosis

answer: a . apical nodular fibrosis .

14q: which of the following disease coexists with silicosis ?

a. sarcoidosis

b. tuberculosis

c. lymphoma

d. rheumatoid arthritis 

answer: b . tuberculosis .

15q: which feature is most characteristic of silicosis ?

a. apical nodular fibrosis

b. coin shadow

c. hilar lymphadenopathy

d. basal peribronchal fibrosis 

answer: a . apical nodular fibrosis .

16q: what is true regarding byssinosis ?

a. dyspnea and other respiratory symptoms on day 5

b. similar to chronic bronchitis and emphysema

c. presents as interstitial lung disease

d. eosinophils are prominent in lavage fluid 

answer: c . presents as intersititial lung disease .

17q: monday dyspnea is seen in ?

a. byssinosis

b. pulmonary eosinophilia

c. malingering

d. chronic bronchitis

answer: a . byssinosis .

18q: cotton dust causes one of the following occupational lung disease ?

a. byssinosis

b. berylliosis

c. bagassosis

d. silicosis 

answer: a . byssinosis .

19q: mycoplasma infection simulates 

a. pneumococcal pneumonia

b. viral pneumonia

c. pulmonary oedema

d. pulmonary infarction 

answer: b . viral pneumonia .

20q: ultrastructural abnormalities reported in defective cilia in immotile cilia syndrome are ?

a. dyenin arm deficiency

b. absence of radial spokes

c. absence of central microtubule 

d. all of the above

answer: d . all of the above .

142 - respiratory system mcqs - part 1

1q: volume of air taken into the lungs in normal respiration is known as ?

a. vital capacity
b. timed vital capacity
c. tidal volume
d. inspiratory reserve volume

answer: c . tidal volume .

2q: for diagnosis of obstructive airway disease which of the following measurement is usual ?

a. vital capacity
b. timed vital capacity
c. tidal volume
d. blood gas analysis

answer: b . timed vital capacity .

3q: in cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis which of the following is not seen ?

a. decreased lung capacity
b. decreased diffusing capacity
c. decreased arteriolar oxygen tension
d. decreased FEV1/FVC ratio

answer: d . decreased FEV1/FVC ratio . cryptogenic means a disease of obscure or unknown origin .

4q: if FEV1 is 1.3 litres and FVC is 3.1 litres in an adult man , the pattern is suggestive of ?

a. normal lung function
b. restrictive lung disease
c. obstructive lung disease
d. none of the above

answer: c . obstructive lung disease .

5q: the hallmark of generalised obstructive lung disease is ?

a. reduced tidal volume
b. reduced residual volume
c. reduced timed vital capacity
d. reduced vital capacity

answer: c . reduced timed vital capacity .

6q: idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis , features include all except ?

a. decreased TLC
b. decreased RV
c. decreased diffusion capacity
d. decreased FEV1
e. decreased FEV1/FVC

answer: e . decreased FEV1 /FVC .

7q: nasal allergy is most often due to ?

a. pollen grains
b. animal dust
c. house dust
d. automobile dust

answer: a . pollen grains .

8q: curshmann's spirals in sputum is seen in ?

a. asthma
b. tuberculous cavity
c. bronchitis
d. bronchiectasis

answer: a . asthma .

9q: exercise induced asthma is not precipitated by ?

a. high altitude climb and exercises
b. cycling in cold water
c. swimming in hot water
d. swimming in cold water

answer: c . swimming in hot water .

10q: one of the following is not an indicator of the severity of asthma ?

a. use of accesory muscles
b. pulsus paradoxus
c. cyanosis
d. systolic hypertension

answer: d . systolic hypertension .

96 - test yourself in medicine - multiple choice questions in medicine with answers and explanations - 701 to 800

701 - glutathione is a tripeptide comprising of ?

answer : glutamic acid , cysteine and glycine .

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702 - pinta is caused by ?

answer : treponema cerateum .

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703 - pneumococcus : capsulated , gram positive , quellung or neufeld reaction , draughtsman concentric rings on culture , non-motile and oxidase and catalase negative .

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704 - liver transplantation was first done by ?

answer : starzl .

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705 - most important HLA for organ transplantation and tissue typing ?

answer : HLA-D .

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706 - HLA matching is not necessary in which of the following organ transplantation ?

answer : liver transplantation .

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707 - vitamin C deficiency causes deficiency of which enzyme ?

answer : proline hydroxylase .

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708 - the couinaud's segmental nomenclature is based on the position of ?

answer : hepatic veins and portal vein .

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709 - post gonococcal stricture urethra is most commonly situated in the ?

answer : bulbar urethra .

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710 - reimplantation time for lower limb ?

answer : 8 hours .

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711 - after oesophagectomy the best substitute of oesophagus is ?

answer : stomach .

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712 - best and definitive diagnosis for breast lump ?

answer : open biopsy ( excision biopsy ).

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713 - first diagnostic procedure when the patient presents with lump is ?

answer : FNAC .

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714 - most malignant type of carcinoma breast ?

answer : mastitis carcinomatosa .

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715 - flap commonly used in breast reconstruction is ?

answer : TRAM .

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716 - spleniculi are accesory spleens , they are seen in ?

answer : hilum .

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717 - splenosis means ?

answer : rupture of spleen and distribution of its tissue on peritoneum .

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718 - spleen contains about how much percentage of the total blood volume ?

answer : 2 % .

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719 - removal of senescent RBC from the circulation by spleen is called ?

answer : culling .

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720 - triad of hypernephroma ?

answer : pain , hematuria and renal mass .

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721 - gredinogo's triad ( petrositis ) ?

answer : persistent ear discharge , retroorbital pain and 6th nerve palsy .

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722 - triad of behcet's syndrome ?

answer : recurrent oral ulcers , genital ulcers , iridocyclitis ( + skin ulcers make a tetrad ) .

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723 - triad of kwashiorkor ?

answer : oedema , growth retardation and mental changes ( apathy , listlessness , lethargy ) .

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724 - gold standard diagnostic test for varicose veins ?

answer : duplex imaging .

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725 - NNRTI s - DEN - delaviridine , efavirenz , nevirapine .

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726 - Neuritic Plaques - seen in Alzheimer's.

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727 - Coarse azurophilic granules in the leuko - seen in ALDER - REILLY SYNDRome .

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728 - Albumino-Cytologic Dissociation is pathognomic for Guillain-Barre (markedly increased protein in CSF with only modest increase in cell count).

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729 - Rouleaux Formation is pathognomic for multiple myeloma RBC's stacked as poker chips.

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730 - Podagra is pathognomic for gout (MP joint of hallux).

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731 - Wire Loop Glomeruli is pathognomic for lupus nephropathy type IV.

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732 - Chancre is pathognomic for primary Syphilis.

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733 - Gower's Maneuver is pathognomic for Duchenne's MD use of arms to stand.

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734 - S3 Heart Sound is pathognomic for L®R Shunt (VSD PDA) & Mitral Regurg & LV Failure.

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735 - Depigmentation Of Substantia Nigra is pathognomic for Parkinson's.

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736 - Cold Agglutinins is pathognomic for Mycoplasma pneumoniae & infectious mononucleosis.

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737 - Crescents In Bowman's Capsule is pathognomic for rapidly progressive (crescentic glomerulonephritis).

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738 - Painless Jaundice is pathognomic for pancreatic CA (head).

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739 - Erythema Chronicum Migrans is pathognomic for Lyme Disease .

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

740 - Basophilic Stippling of RBCs is pathognomic for lead poisoning .

---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

741 - Thyroidization of Kidney is pathognomic for chronic pyelonephritis .

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742 - Tendinous Xanthomas is pathognomic for Familial Hypercholesterolemia .

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743 - S4 Heart Sound is pathognomic for Pulmonary Stenosis & Pulmonary HTN.

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744 - cleft lip is due to nonfusion of - maxillary process with the medial nasal process .

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745 - unilateral cleft lip is associated with - posterior displacement of alar cartilage .

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746 - most frequently fractured bone of the face ?

answer : nasal bone . then comes the zygomatic bone in the second place .

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747 - fracture mandible with edentulous jaw is best treated by ?

answer : external fixator .

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748 - common organism giving rise to UTI ?

answer : e coli .

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749 - acute urinary retention in a male child may be due to ?

answer : meatal ulcer with scabbing.

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750 - urinary cytology is a useful screening test for the diagnosis of ?

a- renal cell carcinoma

b- wilm's tumor

c- urothelial carcinoma

d- carcinoma prostate

answer is c . urothelial carcinoma .

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751 - low and fixed specific gravity of urine is seen in ?

answer : chronic renal failure .

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752 - on exertion urine stream increases in ?

answer : urethral stricture .

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753 - UTI exists when the bacterial count in 1 ml of midstream specimen of urine is ?

answer : 10 to the power of 5 or more . ( 100000 or more - 1 lakh or more ) .

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754 - site of transplantation in islet cell transplant for diabetes mellitus ?

answer : injected into the portal vein .

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755 - which of the following present as acute abdomen ?

a- acute intermittent porphyria

b- tabes

c- pneumonitis of the lower lobe

d- all

answer is d . all the above .

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756 - most common neoplasm of the appendix ?

answer : argentaffinoma ( carcinoid tumor ).

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757 - the most common site of enlargement of lymphnodes in hodgkin's lymphoma is ?

answer : mediastinal nodes .

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758 - treatment of acute lymphangitis ?

answer : antibiotics and rest .

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759 - total dose of radiation in hodgkins disease ?

answer : 3000 to 5000 rad ( 40 gy = 4000 rad ) .

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760 - most common site of lymphangiosarcoma ?

answer : post mastectomy edema of arm .

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761 - grade 1 lymphedema - edema disappearing after overnight rest ( pitting edema that disappears after lying down or rest )

grade 2 lymphedema - non pitting edema which does not disappear easily .

grade 3 lymphedema - lymphedema associated with irriversible skin changes like fibrosis and papillae .

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762 - most common infection after splenectomy ?

answer : streptococcal infection . ( mostly streptococcus pneumoniae )

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763 - most common complication after splenectomy is ?

answer : chest infection .

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764 - post splenectomy sepsis is common in ?

a- ITP

b- thalassemia

c- hereditary spherocytosis

d- trauma

answer is a , b , c .

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765 - the most important radiological sign of splenic rupture is ?

answer : obliteration of splenic shadow .

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766 - accidental small splenic rupture is treated with ?

answer : catgut suturing with omental patch .

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767 - splenic vein thrombosis is best treated by?

answer : splenectomy .

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768 - the rule of nine in the case of burns was first introduced by ?

answer : palaski and tennison and later modified by alexander wallace .

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769 - IV fluids rule for burns ?

answer : percentage of body surface area burnt X weight of the person in kgs X 4 = VOLUME IN ml . parkland formula .

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770 - fibroblast in healing wound is derived from ?

answer : local mesenchyme .

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771 - the vitamin which has inhibitory effect on wound healing ?

answer : vitamin E .

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772 - parathyroid adenoma most commonly involves which of the following site ?

a- thyroid substance

b- superior parathyroid lobe

c- inferior parathyroid lobe

d- in the mediastinum

answer is c . inferior parathyroid lobe .

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773 - most common cause of hypercalcemic crisis is ?

a- parathyroid adenoma

b- parathyroid hyperplasia

c- carcinoma breast

d- paget's disease

answer is c . carcinoma breast .

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774 - opsoclonus - myoclonus is a phenomenon seen in ?

a- neuroblastoma

b- wilms tumor

c- meningioma

d- cortical tuberculoma

answer is a . neuroblastoma .

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775 - extraperitoneal rupture of urinary bladder - where is urine collected ?

answer : above urogenital diaphragm in the perivesical space .

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776 - nerve which lies in association with the wharton's duct ?

answer : lingual nerve .

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779 - pleomorphic adenoma is the most common tumor of the parotid , submandibular and the sublingual salivary glands .

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780 - the most common tumor of the minor salivary glands ?

answer : adenoid cystic carcinoma followed by the mucoepidermoid carcinoma .

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781 - most common duct stones - submandibular gland .

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782 - in prostatic metastasis - the nodes which are most commonly involved ?

answer : obturator nodes .

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783 - which of the following is the most troublesome source of bleeding during a radical retropubic prostatectomy ?

answer : dorsal venous complex .

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784 - " sterile needle test " helps in differentiating ?

a- depth of burns

b- healing process

c- degenerative process

d- infection

answer is a . depth .

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785 - gasless abdomen in X ray is a sign of ?

answer : acute pancreatitis .

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786 - BCL 1 gene - mantle cell lymphoma

BCL 2 gene - follicular lymphoma .

MEN 1 gene - MEN 1 syndrome .

RET gene - MEN 2 syndrome .

MET gene - papillary renal tumor.

APC gene - familial adenomatous polyposis syndrome .

RB1 gene - retinoblastoma .

HPC 1 - hereditary prostate cancer .

EXT 1 and EXT 2 - exostosis - chondrosarcoma - hereditary multiple exostosis .

BRCA 1 and BRCA 2 - breast , ovarian , colon and prostate cancers - hereditary breast ovarian cancer .

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787 - in the acronym " swelling " used for history and examination of a lump or swelling , the letter N stands for ?

answer : noise ( thrill / bruit ) .

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788 - in triage yellow means - neither minor nor immediate category .

in triage green means - ambulatory patients / minor .

black - dead / non salvageable

red - immediate .

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789 - precancerous lesions of the larynx are?

answer : keratosis laryngis and pachyderma laryngis .

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790 - which of the following does not move on deglutition?

a- sublingual dermoid

b- thyroid nodule

c- pretracheal lymphnode

d- thyroglossal cyst

answer is a . sublingual dermoid .

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791 - secondaries in neck with no obvious primary malignancy is most often due to ?

a- carcinoma stomach

b- carcinoma larynx

c- carcinoma nasopharynx

d- carcinoma thyroid

answer is c . carcinoma nasopharynx .

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792 - the most common site of the internal opening of the branchial fistula is at the ?

answer : tonsillar fossa .

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793 - radical dissection of the neck includes all except ?

a- cervical lymph nodes

b- sternocleidomastoid

c- phrenic nerves

d- internal jugular veins

answer is c . phrenic nerves .

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794 - regarding cervical rib , which statement is correct ?

a- it causes pressure on the ulnar nerve.

b- pain is located in the forearm.

c- it always connects to the scalene tubercle by a fibrous band.

d- it passes through the apex of the supraclavicular triangle

answer is a and b .

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795 - which of the parts of the body is not affected by leprosy ?

answer : ovary .

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796 - in AIDS, lymphadenopathy is most often due to ?

a- TB

b- lymphoma

c- non specific enlargement of lymph node

d- kaposi sarcoma

answer is c .

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797 - multiple fistula in ano - commonly occurs in ?

a- TB

b- LGV

c- gonococcal protocolitis

d- colloid carcinoma of rectum .

answer is a and b .

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798 - erysipelas is caused by ?

answer : streptococcus pyogenes .

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799 - most common type of oral carcinoma ?

answer : Lip .

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800 - which of the following causes the least irritation of the peritoneal cavity ?

a- bile

b- blood

c- gastric enzyme

d- pancreatic enzyme

answer is b . blood .